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Lauralee22
Guest
Help! I own a house in Arizona and recently moved back to the state of Maryland. I didn't want to sell yet, so decided to use a property management company to handle leasing out the house. They found a tenant and I accepted the tenant and agreed to a 1 year lease. No other length of time was ever dicussed or even considered on my part. I just received my first statement from the PM company and they included a copy of the lease. The lease term says it's from 12-1-00 through 11-30-02. A 2 YEAR LEASE. The "2" is very dark and obviously written over the "1" that was there and the tenant has her initials by it. What??!!? How can this happen? I called the PM company immediately. They couldn't give me any explanation and would only say that they would ask the tenant if she would come in and sign a corrected lease, but that if the tenant refused there was "nothing at all they could do." My name is signed at the bottom with a date (a date I was out of state)...but it is NOT my signature. ALso, I signed papers with the PM company, but nothing in front of a notary, so I don't believe they have any power to sign my name on my behalf. Is this correct? Can they do this? Is there legal action I can pursue against the PM company? Please help me. Thank you!!