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Question about a deed and ownership ratio

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wonderd4

Junior Member
Hello everyone. I got a scenario for you from New York. Mother, fathers and sisters name are on deed of a house. Mothers name was hand written on the deed before it was recorded at the county, however she did not initial it. Each person owns 1/3. Sisters husband claims sister actually owns 1/2 and father owns 1/2 because mothers name was not recorded properly, should have initials. Does he have a case or is it hot air?
 
Last edited:


Eekamouse

Senior Member
Hello everyone. I got a scenario for you from New York. Mother, fathers and sisters name are on deed of a house. Mothers name was hand written on the deed before it was recorded at the county, however she did not initial it. Each person owns 1/3. Sisters husband claims sister actually owns 1/2 and father owns 1/2 because mothers name was not recorded properly, should have initials. Does he have a case or is it hot air?
He hasn't got a case. He hasn't got anything at all. He is not on the deed.
 

FlyingRon

Senior Member
A deed only conveys property from one person to another. Who was the grantor on this deed. It's generally ill-advised to give children a share of the house the parents own. Ownership isn't like being in some sort of club, it's lousy estate planning and fraught with perils.

Anyhow, if the deed read the way it did now before the grantors signed it, then it is valid. There's no strict requirement for initials (though it is common practice to avoid these sort of silly disagreements).
 

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