Actually, they do. My youngest son is on the title, but only his ex-wife is on the mortgage. The home was financed that way from the get-go. It may be unusual, but it can happen.
Dear paddy and Q:
Please allow me to illustrate my point with a hypothetical.
Let us assume that you own say Lot 1, Block 2 of Morning Glory Subdivision. Through an inheritance bachelor brothers, Bob and Ray are equal undivided co-owners of adjoining Lot 2.
There are no existing improvements on Lot 2. You are desirous of acquiring Lot 2 for the purpose of extending existing improvements on Lot 1.
Ray is desperate for cash and is willing to sell his deeded ownership interest in lot 2 for say $5k. Obstinate Big Bucks Bob, at odds with indigent Ray, won't sell at any price.
QUESTION: Would you be willing to pay Ray his asking price in exchange for a deed covering his equal undivided one-half interest in lot 2?
OF COURSE NOT! Not if you were in you right mind.
You'd become bedfellows with big bucks (co-tenants/owners) and unable to make any improvements to lot 2 without his consent. Plus, you'd have to share those improvements with him and his cronies.
Or, in the alternative, go through the time consuming, paper eating, attorney enriching process of an equitable action of
Partition of Real Property.
Which would be the same unfortunate position of a "
foreclosing" mortgage lender that foolishly loaned the $5k to Ray without securing co-owner, Bob 's signature to the mortgage documents. .
In other words, an institutional lender would never grant a loan secured by a lien on real property unless:
(1) All then existing record owners are signatory to the mortgage agreement and note. Or,
(2) Those owners of record not on the mortgage documents have somehow subordinated all of their right, title and interest in the property (including waiving rights of homestead) to those of the mortgagee.