radeck has brought back a post titled "Our Rights" several times proving childlike behavior and demonstrating a vendetta type
attitude.
History:
Osama bin radeck made 3 posts to this website Real Estate Law forum:
1. "Our Rights"- which I will comment on later.
2. "Assignment of Mortgage"- which I responded to and radeck appreciated. You can view this post as proof.
3. "How To Get Good Legal Advice"- which was a sarcastic negative post about this freeadvice website and the contributors. And which the website administrator deleted due to content.
I was trying to let the "Our Rights" post die since busta provided very good responses, but radeck keeps bringing the thread back up when there is no valid reason to revisit same.
The heart of the matter is as follows:
radeck said: since I didn't qualify for a mortgage loan, only his name appears on the loan and deed.
HomeGuru said: Guess what, if he has title to the property, he can certainly sell it without your appproval, permission and without paying you 50% of the profits.
radeck said: He said (referring to radeck's attorney): As to whether I can prevent him from selling, 50% of the judges we might go before would hold that part enforceable; 50% would not. As to the 50% ownership, that is 100% enforceable and I would get 50% of the proceeds without question.
Further, I was told that I 'could' hold this up for quite some time waiting for the permission to sell judgement and if I won, fine! If I lost, it would buy me the time I needed.
So Mr. HomeGuru, you don't know enough about Missouri law or any law to be in here advising anyone!
**HomeGuru response: my first response stands. Any attorney, even if not a real estate attorney would know that the property owner that has sole and exclusive title to the property, can sell said property without approval, permission and without paying anyone else any money, since no one else is on the deed.
So, if the titleholder wanted to sell, he could and could keep all the money.
You would have to take him to court and prove that you are entitled to 50% of the profits.
Nothing in my post was incorrect or false. Real estate statutory and case law proves my point. Common law supports the issue. Because of your bad and unappreciative attitude, I simply chose at the time not to respond further to your thread.
If you remember, I did not respond to your post initially after my hire an attorney comment, but then you sent me a Personal Message in desparation, begging and pleading for my help. I was nice enough to help you then you showed your true colors by being a turncoat and insulting the readers of this website.
If you continue your Evil ways, I will see to it that you are banned from this website. Your threads speak for themselves and it is obvious that it has now been proven that you are what the thousands of readers really see you as.
attitude.
History:
Osama bin radeck made 3 posts to this website Real Estate Law forum:
1. "Our Rights"- which I will comment on later.
2. "Assignment of Mortgage"- which I responded to and radeck appreciated. You can view this post as proof.
3. "How To Get Good Legal Advice"- which was a sarcastic negative post about this freeadvice website and the contributors. And which the website administrator deleted due to content.
I was trying to let the "Our Rights" post die since busta provided very good responses, but radeck keeps bringing the thread back up when there is no valid reason to revisit same.
The heart of the matter is as follows:
radeck said: since I didn't qualify for a mortgage loan, only his name appears on the loan and deed.
HomeGuru said: Guess what, if he has title to the property, he can certainly sell it without your appproval, permission and without paying you 50% of the profits.
radeck said: He said (referring to radeck's attorney): As to whether I can prevent him from selling, 50% of the judges we might go before would hold that part enforceable; 50% would not. As to the 50% ownership, that is 100% enforceable and I would get 50% of the proceeds without question.
Further, I was told that I 'could' hold this up for quite some time waiting for the permission to sell judgement and if I won, fine! If I lost, it would buy me the time I needed.
So Mr. HomeGuru, you don't know enough about Missouri law or any law to be in here advising anyone!
**HomeGuru response: my first response stands. Any attorney, even if not a real estate attorney would know that the property owner that has sole and exclusive title to the property, can sell said property without approval, permission and without paying anyone else any money, since no one else is on the deed.
So, if the titleholder wanted to sell, he could and could keep all the money.
You would have to take him to court and prove that you are entitled to 50% of the profits.
Nothing in my post was incorrect or false. Real estate statutory and case law proves my point. Common law supports the issue. Because of your bad and unappreciative attitude, I simply chose at the time not to respond further to your thread.
If you remember, I did not respond to your post initially after my hire an attorney comment, but then you sent me a Personal Message in desparation, begging and pleading for my help. I was nice enough to help you then you showed your true colors by being a turncoat and insulting the readers of this website.
If you continue your Evil ways, I will see to it that you are banned from this website. Your threads speak for themselves and it is obvious that it has now been proven that you are what the thousands of readers really see you as.
Last edited: