B
bkimmel
Guest
My boyfriend recently closed on a house yesterday where the seller intends on staying in the house & therefore renting from my boyfriend until Aug. 31st. In the initial "One to Four Family Residential Contract, signed in March", the "Financing" section states that the buyer needs approval for all third party financing, etc. & that the contract is subject to "approval for buyer of a third party first mortagage loan having a loan-to-value not to exceed 80%...due in full in 30 years...interest not to exceed 8.5%" etc...
This contract was signed before my boyfriend got approval from his bank which was forwarded to the seller showing he wanted a "15 year mortgage".
In the "Seller's Lease", it states the seller (renter) should pay the buyer (my boyfriend/landlord) as rent the "BUYER'S MORTGAGE".
The seller is now saying he will not pay the 15 year mortgage b/c the "residential contract" stated approval of a 30 year mortgage.
Is this true? Does the mortgage HAVE to be for a term of 30 years b/c the initial "Residential Contract" stated the approval terms as such?
This contract was signed before my boyfriend got approval from his bank which was forwarded to the seller showing he wanted a "15 year mortgage".
In the "Seller's Lease", it states the seller (renter) should pay the buyer (my boyfriend/landlord) as rent the "BUYER'S MORTGAGE".
The seller is now saying he will not pay the 15 year mortgage b/c the "residential contract" stated approval of a 30 year mortgage.
Is this true? Does the mortgage HAVE to be for a term of 30 years b/c the initial "Residential Contract" stated the approval terms as such?