I leased a new vehicle on 7-14-96, in Ca., and I'm now trying to turn it in. I was told to return it on 7-14-01, but I was also told I have one more payment due on 7-7-01 even though I thought I'd made all the payments ahead of schedule. After getting a payment history from BofA autolease, it indicates I never paid the 1st month bill! But it also indicates I've never had a late payment - ever. The representative I was dealing with said it was highly unusual and he'd never seen it before. The dealer paid them a few thousand on 7-31-96, per the history, but I didn't receive my first statement/bill until 9-7-01. I saved every statement and the one from 9-1-96 makes no indication any bill was not paid in Aug. of 1996. I've been told to go ahead and return it now (I paid the last two months already) but I will still recieve a bill for one more payment. Can they actually bill me for what appears to be a five-year-old mistake on their part? Note: This was my first leasing experience and it will definitely be my last!!!!