S
StiffedBuyer
Guest
I recently agreed to buy a home directly from the homeowner, bi-passing the use of a broker (and his fees). We had a verbal agreement on the exact price. I opened escrow, paid for the appraisal on the property, and proceeded to find renters for my current property. However, at this point, nothing had been signed by the seller. The escrow company wanted to get together to meet with the two of us, so they could get instructions out ASAP. 2 weeks before the close of escrow, the buyer told me that he got another higher offer and was pulling our deal off the table. Both my financial lender and escrow received the verbal understanding from the buyer that this was a done deal at the agreed upon price. But the buyer is saying that since he did not sign anything, he's not obligated to sell me the property.
My questions are, can I do anything at all legally? Is this verbal agreement binding by law? If not, can I sue him for at least the appraisal and documentation fee that I paid during the escrow process in small claims court? Should I just drop this issue?
My questions are, can I do anything at all legally? Is this verbal agreement binding by law? If not, can I sue him for at least the appraisal and documentation fee that I paid during the escrow process in small claims court? Should I just drop this issue?