I believe the OP is trying to say that the other party owned some property that the OP intended to "attach" based on winning the suit, but that property has now been sold.
Then where does the easement come into play?
You also don’t attach property that is not part of the sale to an existing deed. Another deed would be executed transferring the property the op has “won”.
What isn’t clear is whether this other section of property was included in the sales agreement and due to that, should have been within the described property on the deed. Then, if it wasn’t on the deed or it was property the op understood was supposed to be part of the sale but never was.
I guess I’m not understanding what the basis for claiming this other section of land is at all.
Maybe if the op would explain things more completely it may make sense.