Hi,
I recently worked as an at-will, salaried employee at a major firm specializing primarily in federal work in the US. I have worked with this company for the past year and a half. A few days ago, I was given a memo to sign indicating a 40% reduction in salary, as well as the corresponding reduction in work schedule due to a lack of available work. The details of the memo indicated a period of time lasting for a minimum of 60 days (essentially in perpetuity if I were to sign). I let the HR department know that I was not going to sign the agreement, as I viewed this as a change to my original agreement on my salary with the company. From my understanding, the company has every right to terminate my contract at any point it so chooses. However, the company HR manual states that terminated employees (not including terminations due to offenses by the employee) are entitled to severance pay. In my case, I would be entitled to 2 weeks of severance pay. The day after advising the HR department of my decision, I was immediately told that I was relieved of my duties because of my �refusal of available work�. I was not given a two weeks notice, another policy stated in my employer�s HR manual when an employee is terminated due to a reduction in work. Through email and the phone, I have continuously maintained that I did not refuse work, rather I refused the proposed reduction in salary. It seems the company is conveniently using the fact that they gave me a ridiculous offer in order to justify terminating me without paying severance. I am currently considering taking this to court. I just wanted to get some other opinions on the matter.
Thank you.
I recently worked as an at-will, salaried employee at a major firm specializing primarily in federal work in the US. I have worked with this company for the past year and a half. A few days ago, I was given a memo to sign indicating a 40% reduction in salary, as well as the corresponding reduction in work schedule due to a lack of available work. The details of the memo indicated a period of time lasting for a minimum of 60 days (essentially in perpetuity if I were to sign). I let the HR department know that I was not going to sign the agreement, as I viewed this as a change to my original agreement on my salary with the company. From my understanding, the company has every right to terminate my contract at any point it so chooses. However, the company HR manual states that terminated employees (not including terminations due to offenses by the employee) are entitled to severance pay. In my case, I would be entitled to 2 weeks of severance pay. The day after advising the HR department of my decision, I was immediately told that I was relieved of my duties because of my �refusal of available work�. I was not given a two weeks notice, another policy stated in my employer�s HR manual when an employee is terminated due to a reduction in work. Through email and the phone, I have continuously maintained that I did not refuse work, rather I refused the proposed reduction in salary. It seems the company is conveniently using the fact that they gave me a ridiculous offer in order to justify terminating me without paying severance. I am currently considering taking this to court. I just wanted to get some other opinions on the matter.
Thank you.