S
streiteben
Guest
I reside in Wisconsin. This is under the court of appeals issue.
Contract states rent is $0.00/ZERO.
It is argued that the amount of rent ($0.00) is not an amount of rent.
Can the counter argument be that $0.00 is an amount? Is there a financial (even understood law of accounting practice) that $0.00 is an amount - or a defined amount?
The attorney is also arguing that $0.00 is not an amount of rent, although I can agrue that per lease the stated amount $0.00 was set down as consideration for consideration pre-delivered to the signing of contract - so can not be translated to be actually 'free of charge' even though the amount is stated as $0.00. (The creator of the contract, obviously felt that considerations previously delivered by the other party were adequate to consider rents pre-paying any monetary amounts placed on rent).
Again, is there a law, or even common financial accounting law which defines '0' as a valid defining amount?
Contract states rent is $0.00/ZERO.
It is argued that the amount of rent ($0.00) is not an amount of rent.
Can the counter argument be that $0.00 is an amount? Is there a financial (even understood law of accounting practice) that $0.00 is an amount - or a defined amount?
The attorney is also arguing that $0.00 is not an amount of rent, although I can agrue that per lease the stated amount $0.00 was set down as consideration for consideration pre-delivered to the signing of contract - so can not be translated to be actually 'free of charge' even though the amount is stated as $0.00. (The creator of the contract, obviously felt that considerations previously delivered by the other party were adequate to consider rents pre-paying any monetary amounts placed on rent).
Again, is there a law, or even common financial accounting law which defines '0' as a valid defining amount?