GeneralZod
Active Member
In the state of Texas
Looking for a legal professional's thoughts on statutes.
My question has to do with Texas Statutes and whether they are objective (applied as they are written) or subjective (open to interpretation).
My research with Texas Supreme Court rulings shows that statutes are (according to Tx Supreme Court) are supposed to be objective, the court is supposed to refrain from adding or subtracting any words or meanings, the plain language is what the statute is supposed to be, and an ordinary citizen (like myself) is supposed to be able to read the statutes and rely on the fact that it means what it says. The Tex Gov't Code chapter 311 (code construction act) confirms this.
By contrast, I am told by attorneys that judges have a vast discretion on statutes and how they implement them.
Ultimately I am left with two different points of view.
The statutes seem quite clear as they are written, with English language professionals agreeing as to what statutes mean (when asked), however, the judge's rulings seem to vary greatly from those statutes written meanings and the attorneys seem to say it is normal.
I am asking if statutes are supposed to be like the Texas Supreme Court and Tex Gov't Code states... the statutes are to be implemented as they are written... OR... are the attorneys correct and the judges have a broad discretion even with statutes where NO discretion is given (by statute language)?
Thank you
Looking for a legal professional's thoughts on statutes.
My question has to do with Texas Statutes and whether they are objective (applied as they are written) or subjective (open to interpretation).
My research with Texas Supreme Court rulings shows that statutes are (according to Tx Supreme Court) are supposed to be objective, the court is supposed to refrain from adding or subtracting any words or meanings, the plain language is what the statute is supposed to be, and an ordinary citizen (like myself) is supposed to be able to read the statutes and rely on the fact that it means what it says. The Tex Gov't Code chapter 311 (code construction act) confirms this.
By contrast, I am told by attorneys that judges have a vast discretion on statutes and how they implement them.
Ultimately I am left with two different points of view.
The statutes seem quite clear as they are written, with English language professionals agreeing as to what statutes mean (when asked), however, the judge's rulings seem to vary greatly from those statutes written meanings and the attorneys seem to say it is normal.
I am asking if statutes are supposed to be like the Texas Supreme Court and Tex Gov't Code states... the statutes are to be implemented as they are written... OR... are the attorneys correct and the judges have a broad discretion even with statutes where NO discretion is given (by statute language)?
Thank you