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If Company "A" has been using a name for several years but never trademarked it and Company "B" files for the Trademark, does Company "B" have authority over the use of the Trademarked Name?
In everything I have been reading if company "A" can prove they have been not only using the name, but that it is established in the area they do business - then, when company "B" applies for a TM it is possible the USPTO will refuse their application. If I'm not mistaken it would fall under Common Law.
There are sites to research Common Law that are fairly detailed.
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