C
crankyfranky
Guest
This is from Colorado.
The representative who was newly assigned to my account made purchases of mutual funds totaling about $200K without my authorization. The only significant loss at this point is the amount of commissions/fees deducted from the purchase - but since these were front-end load funds the total was several thousand dollars. The funds have since fluctuated up and down by a few percentage points - not a significant amount. I did not find out about the transactions until after they had already cleared, a few days after the purchase. At that point I had a face-to-face conversation with the representative. He told me that since the trades had already cleared there was nothing that could be done. He also claimed that we discussed the purchases and that I gave the authorization. I do recall that we did discuss the funds, but I also clearly recall that I did not give an authorization to purchase. The conversation in which we discussed the funds initially also took place face-to-face. There were no others present, and there was no record of the conversation.
I am not sure whether what happened was a misunderstanding or whether this was a deliberate impropriety. The institution is a large national bank/brokerage - one of the largest in the country. What recourse do I have for pursuing this?
The representative who was newly assigned to my account made purchases of mutual funds totaling about $200K without my authorization. The only significant loss at this point is the amount of commissions/fees deducted from the purchase - but since these were front-end load funds the total was several thousand dollars. The funds have since fluctuated up and down by a few percentage points - not a significant amount. I did not find out about the transactions until after they had already cleared, a few days after the purchase. At that point I had a face-to-face conversation with the representative. He told me that since the trades had already cleared there was nothing that could be done. He also claimed that we discussed the purchases and that I gave the authorization. I do recall that we did discuss the funds, but I also clearly recall that I did not give an authorization to purchase. The conversation in which we discussed the funds initially also took place face-to-face. There were no others present, and there was no record of the conversation.
I am not sure whether what happened was a misunderstanding or whether this was a deliberate impropriety. The institution is a large national bank/brokerage - one of the largest in the country. What recourse do I have for pursuing this?