In Illinois I purchased a 9 year old BMW for roughly $15,000.
Prior to getting a loan and purchasing the vehicle, I had it inspected by a professional garage, ran a CarFax report on it, and of course inspected and drove it myself.
1 month later I brought the car in for it's first scheduled oil change at which point the mechanics informed me that the car had been in a major collision and that the entire front-end had been replaced, frame rails had been straightened and welded (very poorly) and the car had been repainted.
In this condition it was worth nothing close to what I paid for it.
I had asked the previous owner if it had ever been in a collision and he said that it had not. The CarFax report showed no collisions and a clear title. The pre-purchase inspection didn't reveal any damage either.
Frustrated, I was able to contact the 2nd previous owner (who happens to be an attorney) who sold the car to the individual I purchased it from. He said that he had informed the buyer (who I bought the car from) of the damage at the time of sale. The individual from whom I purchased the car claimed to have had the car for 1.5 years when in actuality he had purchased it 6 weeks prior to selling it to me. Suspicious to say the least.
I am now faced with the dilema of either selling the car without disclosing what I know (buyer beware) or taking a major financial hit by attempting to sell it for roughly 1/2 what I paid for it, not an option I can afford.
My question is, do I have any legal recourse in this situation? I would love to sue the individual who sold me the vehicle, recover my money and buy a vehicle that is safer and in better condition. I'd like this vehicle to end with me instead of passing it on to another unsuspecting buyer who will be disapointed.
I appreciate your help and look forward to your advice!
G
Prior to getting a loan and purchasing the vehicle, I had it inspected by a professional garage, ran a CarFax report on it, and of course inspected and drove it myself.
1 month later I brought the car in for it's first scheduled oil change at which point the mechanics informed me that the car had been in a major collision and that the entire front-end had been replaced, frame rails had been straightened and welded (very poorly) and the car had been repainted.
In this condition it was worth nothing close to what I paid for it.
I had asked the previous owner if it had ever been in a collision and he said that it had not. The CarFax report showed no collisions and a clear title. The pre-purchase inspection didn't reveal any damage either.
Frustrated, I was able to contact the 2nd previous owner (who happens to be an attorney) who sold the car to the individual I purchased it from. He said that he had informed the buyer (who I bought the car from) of the damage at the time of sale. The individual from whom I purchased the car claimed to have had the car for 1.5 years when in actuality he had purchased it 6 weeks prior to selling it to me. Suspicious to say the least.
I am now faced with the dilema of either selling the car without disclosing what I know (buyer beware) or taking a major financial hit by attempting to sell it for roughly 1/2 what I paid for it, not an option I can afford.
My question is, do I have any legal recourse in this situation? I would love to sue the individual who sold me the vehicle, recover my money and buy a vehicle that is safer and in better condition. I'd like this vehicle to end with me instead of passing it on to another unsuspecting buyer who will be disapointed.
I appreciate your help and look forward to your advice!
G