Does the nature of a manufacturer buyback/lemon law have any special legal treatment such that we would no longer be considered the original owner?
I ask since there is a stipulation in the Used Clean Vehicle Credit (https://www.irs.gov/credits-deductions/used-clean-vehicle-credit) that to qualify for the credit for buying a previously owned, qualified EV, you must not be the original owner. I couldn't find any info justifying the stipulation, though my guess is that the spirit of the stipulation is to prevent people from abusing the credit (i.e. selling/trading in their car, then turning around and buying it back right away to get the credit).
I think my situation is different in that:
Here's a couple of hypothetical scenarios where the letter of the law would be followed, but the spirit of the law would likely be violated:
Circling back to my original manufacturer buyback/lemon law question, when doing a Google search, I came across an AI search result that mentions "If the repurchase is a manufacturer buyback (lemon law or otherwise), the manufacturer will title the vehicle in their name, preventing you from being the original owner." I could not find an actual article that confirms or elaborates on this, and I know AI searches are not the most reliable for accuracy, but I'm hoping someone can help me determine whether the manufacturer buyback "undoes" our status as the original owner so we could possibly be eligible for this tax credit. I know I'm grasping at straws here, but I'm out of other ideas for how we could be eligible for this tax credit for this particular vehicle/VIN #.
Also, the part I mentioned earlier about originally titling the car in both of our names is unfortunate because it might have been possible to have one of us be the original owner, and the other be the owner for the 2nd purchase, which might have allowed us to be eligible for the used vehicle credit.
In case it matters, we reside in Wisconsin which is where the manufacturer buyback occurred. The vehicle is currently for sale in Missouri.
Thanks in advance for any guidance!
I ask since there is a stipulation in the Used Clean Vehicle Credit (https://www.irs.gov/credits-deductions/used-clean-vehicle-credit) that to qualify for the credit for buying a previously owned, qualified EV, you must not be the original owner. I couldn't find any info justifying the stipulation, though my guess is that the spirit of the stipulation is to prevent people from abusing the credit (i.e. selling/trading in their car, then turning around and buying it back right away to get the credit).
I think my situation is different in that:
- My wife and I purchased our EV in 2019 and titled it in both of our names (possibly would have helped in this case had we picked just one of us rather than both. Details below.).
- We claimed the New Clean Vehicle Credit at that time, but I don't remember if we had enough tax liability to actually receive any value from the credit.
- Owned the car until 2021 until we decided to pursue a manufacturer buyback due to the manufacturer's sketchy handling of a massive recall affecting the high voltage battery on every EV of that model, as well as safety concerns related to the recall.
- We otherwise loved the car and would have kept it if not for the recall.
- Indicated to the manufacturer during the buyback process that we wanted to keep track of the car (same VIN #) in case we wanted to buy it again after the dust settled from the recall.
- We were told there was no way to do that and that we were on our own to search for it should it ever end up on the market again.
- Fast forward to 2025 - I searched for the VIN # online and found the car is available for purchase at a dealership. I'm really excited for the possibility of re-buying our old car now that the battery has been replaced. Unfortunately, because we are the original owner, we appear to not be eligible for the tax credit. However, we can buy any other VIN # of the same make/model (certain eligibility rules apply) if we want, but I highly prefer our old car since we took good care of it, know its history, stuck some $ into it in upgrades, sentimental value, etc.
- Note: the tax credit took effect on January 1, 2023. The manufacturer buyback happened in 2021, which is before the credit came into existence. So there were obviously no thoughts of abusing any tax credits.
Here's a couple of hypothetical scenarios where the letter of the law would be followed, but the spirit of the law would likely be violated:
- Someone who currently has an EV who might have received the new vehicle tax credit ($7500) sees there is now a used vehicle tax credit ($4000). He decides to trade his vehicle in for another EV that for all practical purposes is identical to the one he has with the exception of the VIN # (same make/model, mileage, color, features, etc.), and can legally receive the $4000 credit as well.
- This would clearly be a blatant cash grab/abuse of the credit.
- 2 people go through the same scenario I am going through. Both repaired cars end up sitting side-by-side on a dealership lot. Both people want to buy their old cars back, though are not eligible for the Used Clean Vehicle Credit. However, if they bought each other's old car, both people would be eligible for the credit.
- So both owners and both cars received both the New AND Used Clean Vehicle Credits.
- I don't see how functionally different each person re-buying their own cars would be versus buying each other's car. So the credit being eligible for only buying each other's car makes no sense to me.
Circling back to my original manufacturer buyback/lemon law question, when doing a Google search, I came across an AI search result that mentions "If the repurchase is a manufacturer buyback (lemon law or otherwise), the manufacturer will title the vehicle in their name, preventing you from being the original owner." I could not find an actual article that confirms or elaborates on this, and I know AI searches are not the most reliable for accuracy, but I'm hoping someone can help me determine whether the manufacturer buyback "undoes" our status as the original owner so we could possibly be eligible for this tax credit. I know I'm grasping at straws here, but I'm out of other ideas for how we could be eligible for this tax credit for this particular vehicle/VIN #.
Also, the part I mentioned earlier about originally titling the car in both of our names is unfortunate because it might have been possible to have one of us be the original owner, and the other be the owner for the 2nd purchase, which might have allowed us to be eligible for the used vehicle credit.
In case it matters, we reside in Wisconsin which is where the manufacturer buyback occurred. The vehicle is currently for sale in Missouri.
Thanks in advance for any guidance!
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