B
Babylon5
Guest
My husband was granted his divorce in April of 1998 in Texas. In August of 98, we got married in Texas. We needed to get a copy of the divorce decree to buy a house and found out that the opposing party who was ordered to provide one, never did. The judge finally signed on in April in 1999. Our attorney said that the judge was to back date it the decree to April 1998 when she granted it, but she didn't. So, is our marriage valid, or is common law and community property already into effect? We have lived together the whole time, but we carry separate everything - checking accounts, etc.,