verbal contract to buy a house

[panzertanker]

I made a verbal agreement to buy a house from a divorced couple from Florida, (house is in florida). We agreed on the price, the wife, who is my main contact told me that the ex-husband agreed to our offer. I then told the wife I would have a contract and earnest money to her in a few days, (I live in Georgia). I called the wife back the next day to ask if she would include the washer, dryer and refrigerator in the deal, as they must be included in the contract. She stated she would call me back. This was on Friday. I recieved a call from the ex-husband this AM stating that he had someone with 10K more, cash-in-hand, wanting to buy the house now and he asked if I wanted to make another offer since "we don't have a contract or money from you yet". I stated that we DO have a verbal contract and that the hold up was the appliances, and that I could have him a contract and money in his hand today if I just had an answer re: appliances I will buy house without appliances regardless). He now appears to be ready to sell our dream house to someone else...
Do I have a legally binding verbal contract?
Thanks,
Todd

 

[seniorjudge]

There is no such thing as a verbal contract to buy real estate.

For example, http://www.premack.com/columns/1995/951208.htm

 

[btsandsports]

Wow. I am no expert in the matter but I would think a verbal contract wouldn't be worth anything. If it came down to verbals I could take you to court and say that we had a verbal agreement for you to pay me $10,000. You woudn't have any proof to say you didn't owe me and more importantly for you I wouldn't have any proof either. Just my 2cents.

 

[panzertanker]

Thanks for the replies, I knew the answer in my heart, but one can never be sure...
Todd

 

[HomeGuru]

I made a verbal agreement to buy a house from a divorced couple from Florida, (house is in florida). We agreed on the price, the wife, who is my main contact told me that the ex-husband agreed to our offer. I then told the wife I would have a contract and earnest money to her in a few days, (I live in Georgia). I called the wife back the next day to ask if she would include the washer, dryer and refrigerator in the deal, as they must be included in the contract. She stated she would call me back. This was on Friday. I recieved a call from the ex-husband this AM stating that he had someone with 10K more, cash-in-hand, wanting to buy the house now and he asked if I wanted to make another offer since "we don't have a contract or money from you yet". I stated that we DO have a verbal contract and that the hold up was the appliances, and that I could have him a contract and money in his hand today if I just had an answer re: appliances I will buy house without appliances regardless). He now appears to be ready to sell our dream house to someone else...
Do I have a legally binding verbal contract?
Thanks,
Todd

**A: search statutes of frauds.