L
lildevil719
Guest
okay, here's the situation, I hope someone can at least give me an idea of where to start. This is occurring in Colorado. My mother and I share joint guardianship(sp?) of my brother. He is a developmentally disabled adult. He lives in his own apartment, works, and has a driver's license and even his own car(paid in full) He is an upstanding citizen trying to make a life for himself. He recently vacated an apartment before his lease was up. However, my Mother and I feel that he had ample cause to vacate the apartment on the grounds that the landlord broke the lease. In the lease it says "Landlord shall cover the expenses to maintain and repair doors, windows and all outside fixtures." he lived in the apartment for a year and a half. in the first year, the apartment flooded 6 times because something was wrong with the door. before he signed the new lease in April of 2000, the manager of the apartment building agreed to have the door fixed before the end of Spring, 2000. That manager left and a new one came in and refused to fix the door, because he had no proof that the flooding had actually occurred. After this manager refused to have the door fixed, my brother's apartment flooded three more times. They still would not fix it. Doesn't this constitute the landlord breaking the lease since the door was not fixed, even after 3 written requests to have it repaired? They are really screwing him around. Here's the other problem...When my brother vacated the apartment, he turned in his thirty days notice on the 8th of Oct. The day he was to vacate was the 15th of November. The manager signed the paper, which stated clearly that the landlord had refused to fix the door and this was the reason for my brother leaving. Now, they're trying to charge him for the remainder of the month of November, even though the date on the paper that the manager signed was the 15th, halfway through the month. If my brother had the money to pay for it, we would just pay for the remainder of the month and let it go. However, he's making a living on $500 a month and cannot afford to pay and additional 265 dollars. Since the landlord agreed not to charge for the remainder of the lease(until March of 2001) does this constitute agreement on their part that they were the ones who broke the lease? And since the manager signed the paper saying the 15th was the date of vacancy, can they still charge him for the rest of the month? thanks for any help anyone can give me!
