You are free to disagree.
There, you both agree on that.I know I am, so no need to point that out.
The buying costs generally get rolled into the loan and therefore if they were sharing the mortgage payment they were sharing the costs. The selling costs reduce the payout at the end, therefore both are paying for them. So I don't agree with you. In this instance after selling costs they net only enough for his down payment. I do not see it as equitable that he would not have to absorb his half.I don't agree with that unless she paid some of the buying costs. If she put nothing into it then I don't see her getting anything out of it unless there is something left over after all costs of sale are paid and he gets back the $50k he put down.
That depends. When you bought the house, did you and she enter into a written contract that would govern your joint ownership of the home and which spelled out what would happen in the event of termination of the relationship? If not, why not, and did you discuss that possible eventuality?Is she entitled to 1/2 of that or because I put down the down payment by law who get's what.
There apparently was no written agreement. Did you read his response to adjusterjack’s post?That depends. When you bought the house, did you and she enter into a written contract that would govern your joint ownership of the home and which spelled out what would happen in the event of termination of the relationship? If not, why not, and did you discuss that possible eventuality?
I read everything the OP wrote, none of which addresses the issue of a pre-purchase contract/agreement.There apparently was no written agreement. Did you read his response to adjusterjack’s post?
You are assuming something two things that we don't know. First, you are assuming that the buying costs were rolled into the mortgage. They might not have been. And second, you are assuming that they both paid towards the mortgage. The OP never stated that, so we don't know who paid what amounts towards the mortgage. That's why I prefaced my answers with qualifications about the facts. All the facts matter.The buying costs generally get rolled into the loan and therefore if they were sharing the mortgage payment they were sharing the costs.
But as that comes out before any split of the rest that's already accounted for.The selling costs reduce the payout at the end, therefore both are paying for them.