Proserpina
Senior Member
it is paid to spouses who are divorcing due to having acknowledged a preference for the same sex
Why would that make a difference?
Why should it?
it is paid to spouses who are divorcing due to having acknowledged a preference for the same sex
Google condonation. You stayed with her after the adultery -- after knowing about the adultery? Then the adultery is not really going to affect anything as it is too long ago.What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? FL
How much does adultery matter when it comes to alimony? Currently going through the process of dissolution of marriage. My wife committed adultery twice during our marriage with two different men and had one child with each of those men. One of those was taken from her by child protective services.
A) Where in the post does it state the children are going to remain with him since neither of the children mentioned is HIS?Florida is a "no fault" divorce state. This means that either party may seek a divorce without proving any reason for it other than the spouses don't want to be married anymore. The spouse seeking a divorce simply needs to state that the marriage is "irretrievably broken." This rule relieves the court of the complicated duty of deciding who is at fault, and the parties to the marriage are spared having to talk about painful personal issues in court.
Florida laws specifically list adultery as a factor to be considered in determining the amount of alimony awarded, but courts have struggled to reconcile the consideration of adultery with the "no fault" concept. The bottom line is that judges will only increase a wronged spouse's alimony if the adulterous conduct somehow increases that spouse's monetary needs.
In all honesty, since the children are going to remain with you, then the only factor here to consider is how your spouse's adultery affects YOUR income and assets. It appears the court will seek to equalize and accommodate YOU as the wronged spouse, but if your income and assets aren't really affected by her adultery, then it would be HER that would be on the losing end of that equation. It could actually prevent her from receiving a significant amount of alimony as a result of her actions.
WHERE does it say that? Where? Are you all reading a post I am not reading?If she truly abandoned the family 3 years ago and hasn't responded to the court, why do you think she would be awarded any alimony at all?
WHERE does it say that? Where? Are you all reading a post I am not reading?
Thank you. I thought I was losing my mind. Maybe it is just too early at this point.I think ITF is talking about this 'un:
https://forum.freeadvice.com/divorce-separation-annulment-36/what-comes-after-filing-motion-default-597039.html#post3175931
You mean the thread OP started and gave up on after the moderator hacked it to death?I think ITF is talking about this 'un:
https://forum.freeadvice.com/divorce-separation-annulment-36/what-comes-after-filing-motion-default-597039.html#post3175931
You mean the thread OP started and gave up on after the moderator hacked it to death?
By golly, you're right.hack to death
1. v. "to hack to death"
-to remove Bali Hai's completely irrelevant and legally incorrect response to OP's alimony question
Ok then, why are everyone else's (especially yours) completely irrelevant and legally incorrect response to OP questions allowed to clutter the screen?By golly, you're right.
You don't think she's going to fall for that trap, do you?Why would that make a difference?
Why should it?