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Crazy soon-to-be-ex-wife question

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What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? TX

Hi, i'm about to go through a divorce with my wife. Our situation is fairly straightforward, no kids, very little debt and assets. However, one of the main reasons we are divorcing is, she's convinced (obsessed actually) that i have slept with one of her friends, and i have not ever.

She wants to fight. I drew up what i felt like was a fair proposal to split our stuff, but she said no, she claims she wants to get this person on the stand and examine her about this cheating stuff.

So my question is... 1) Is that possible, considering Texas is a no fault state and divorce is only concerned with the division of assets and liabilities? 2) If it is possible, what would be the purpose? What would be the relevance? Could my attorney object to this person being examined?

Thanks
 


Silverplum

Senior Member
What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? TX

Hi, i'm about to go through a divorce with my wife. Our situation is fairly straightforward, no kids, very little debt and assets. However, one of the main reasons we are divorcing is, she's convinced (obsessed actually) that i have slept with one of her friends, and i have not ever.

She wants to fight. I drew up what i felt like was a fair proposal to split our stuff, but she said no, she claims she wants to get this person on the stand and examine her about this cheating stuff.

So my question is... 1) Is that possible, considering Texas is a no fault state and divorce is only concerned with the division of assets and liabilities? 2) If it is possible, what would be the purpose? What would be the relevance? Could my attorney object to this person being examined?

Thanks
You slept with her friend, and you call her crazy?

No, thanks. I have other stuff to do. :rolleyes:
 

RRevak

Senior Member
What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? TX

Hi, i'm about to go through a divorce with my wife. Our situation is fairly straightforward, no kids, very little debt and assets. However, one of the main reasons we are divorcing is, she's convinced (obsessed actually) that i have slept with one of her friends, and i have not ever.

She wants to fight. I drew up what i felt like was a fair proposal to split our stuff, but she said no, she claims she wants to get this person on the stand and examine her about this cheating stuff.

So my question is... 1) Is that possible, considering Texas is a no fault state and divorce is only concerned with the division of assets and liabilities? 2) If it is possible, what would be the purpose? What would be the relevance? Could my attorney object to this person being examined?

Thanks
I can think of a couple reasons why she might want such things. But, if you didn't actually do anything wrong then where is the harm if she does?
 
I think you and I fell on the exact same spot on OPs page ;)
Wow are these posts for real? Why are these peope able to post such things? And apparently you can't read, I said i DID NOT sleep with her and that has nothing to do with my question. My question was, is it possible that a judge would allow this person to get on the stand and if so, WHY? For what purpose? In Texas divorce is only about dividing assets and liabilities.

Can you two please stop with the slanderous remarks?
 

RRevak

Senior Member
Wow are these posts for real? Why are these peope able to post such things? And apparently you can't read, I said i DID NOT sleep with her and that has nothing to do with my question. My question was, is it possible that a judge would allow this person to get on the stand and if so, WHY? For what purpose? In Texas divorce is only about dividing assets and liabilities.

Can you two please stop with the slanderous remarks?
If she plays her end right yes, she could theoretically request the testimony of a person. Texas does actually consider adultery during divorce for several reasons.
 

RRevak

Senior Member
But if you have nothing to hide then you're good if she follows through and she merely looks like a loonie soon-to-be ex. If you do, then guess it won't be hidden for long. :cool:
 

Silverplum

Senior Member
Wow are these posts for real? Why are these peope able to post such things? And apparently you can't read, I said i DID NOT sleep with her and that has nothing to do with my question. My question was, is it possible that a judge would allow this person to get on the stand and if so, WHY? For what purpose? In Texas divorce is only about dividing assets and liabilities.

Can you two please stop with the slanderous remarks?
Goodness. I misread. My apologies. (They aren't slanderous remarks, though. You are on a legal site. :cool:)

Of course, it doesn't matter what I think.
 

Proserpina

Senior Member
Wow are these posts for real? Why are these peope able to post such things? And apparently you can't read, I said i DID NOT sleep with her and that has nothing to do with my question. My question was, is it possible that a judge would allow this person to get on the stand and if so, WHY? For what purpose? In Texas divorce is only about dividing assets and liabilities.

Can you two please stop with the slanderous remarks?

That's not actually true.... in that sense.

Yes, Texas is a community property state - but this does not equate to a 50/50 allocation. The court can consider marital fault.

Okay I tried and couldn't figure out how to make this easier to read, so that's an absolute fail on my part. Regardless, this comes straight from the mouth... or fingers... of a Texas attorney:

I've bolded the important bits.

Texas Is A Community Property State

Texas is a community property state and that fact often leads people to assume the court is obligated to divide the marital property equally between the spouses. That is not the case. The judge in a divorce case is obligated to weigh all the facts and devise a “just and right” division of the assets and debts. Needless to say, what a party views as a “fair” allocation of the property may not correspond at all with the judge’s perspective or that of the other party.


Factors Affecting The Division Of Property

There are a number of factors that the trial judge may consider in determining what is a “just and right” division of marital property in a particular divorce case. The most common reasons for ordering a lopsided division of property involve responsibility for raising children and differences in the earning capacities of the spouses. In those situations, the judge may order a 55-45 or 60-40 division of the marital property.

The facts that may result in a disproportionate division of the marital estate include:

Fault In The Failure Of The Marriage: The “innocent” party may receive a disproportionate division of the marital estate based upon an assessment of fault in the failure of the marriage relationship. Adultery, cruelty and various other fault grounds for divorce still exist in Texas.

Benefits The Innocent Spouse Would Have Received By Continuation Of The Marriage: Akin to the assessment of fault approach is the compensation for the losses the innocent spouse will suffer by reason of the divorce. Certain valuable benefits may be lost (and perhaps be irreplaceable) as a result of the divorce.

Disparity Of Earning Capacities: A gap between the business opportunities available to the spouses, a disparity in incomes, a difference in earning capabilities, and associated facts may affect the division of property.

Physical Condition, Health: Physical health (or lack thereof) may affect the division of property between the spouses.

Difference In Ages: A disparity in the ages of the parties may have a bearing upon ability to work, eligibility of a party for retirement benefits, etc. and, therefore, may be a factor in dividing property.

Size Of Community Estate: The size of the marital estate may affect the methods by which the court allocates the properties. As a general rule, the larger the estate, the closer the court will come to a 50-50 division of property.

Size Of Separate Estates: The approach to division of the community property may be affected by the nature and extent of the separate property owned by each party. The relative sizes of the community estate and the separate estates of one or both parties may be considered by the court.

Anticipated Inheritance: An inheritance will be the separate property of the receiving party; therefore, this approach is related to other separate property factors stated within the section.

Right Of Reimbursement: Claims for reimbursement are factors that can be considered in dividing the community property. The approach involves the financial interrelationship between the separate estates and the community estate.

Gifts To A Spouse: A gift purchased with community funds serves to convert community property to separate property.

Unusual Gifts To Third Parties Or Paramours: Spending money on the paramour may give rise to a claim for an unequal division of marital property.

Improper Use/Waste Of Community Assets: A good faith investment that goes sour does not give rise to claims for a disproportionate division. However, misuse of community property resulting in losses may give rise to such claims.

Property In Other Jurisdictions: Property in other geographic locations, particularly if it is beyond the effective reach of the Texas court, may be a factor in the division of the properties over which the court can exercise direct control.

Tax Considerations: Existing tax liabilities, capital gains tax, income tax consequences, etc. are proper matters for consideration in dividing the marital estate.

Spousal Support Obligations: The payment of (or failure to make payment of) spousal support ordered while the suit is pending may play a part in the court’s final division plan.

Custody Of Children: Orders related to custody of minor children or the reality of a party having possession of a child over 18 years of age are matters that may affect the division of property.

Attorneys Fees & Costs Of Litigation: The expense of litigation, particularly attorneys fees, may be considered in dividing the community property.

Unique Nature Of Property: Particular items of property are often of greater “practical value” to one party than the other. Business operations are the most common example of assets that are not readily divisible between the parties, yet may comprise a substantial percentage of the marital estate.
(If you actually read that whole thing, kudos!)
 

RRevak

Senior Member
That's not actually true.... in that sense.

Yes, Texas is a community property state - but this does not equate to a 50/50 allocation. The court can consider marital fault.

Okay I tried and couldn't figure out how to make this easier to read, so that's an absolute fail on my part. Regardless, this comes straight from the mouth... or fingers... of a Texas attorney:

I've bolded the important bits.



(If you actually read that whole thing, kudos!)
You're way too sweet to the (alleged) cheating OP ;)
 

eerelations

Senior Member
You're way too sweet to the (alleged) cheating OP ;)
How is he the alleged cheater? He says he never slept with this woman his wife is accusing him of sleeping with. And she hasn't come on here to say she believes he slept with this woman. So where's the allegement (OK not a word but you know what I mean)?
 

Proserpina

Senior Member
How is he the alleged cheater? He says he never slept with this woman his wife is accusing him of sleeping with. And she hasn't come on here to say she believes he slept with this woman. So where's the allegement (OK not a word but you know what I mean)?


Do we now require all parties to post their sides of the story just so we can use the most appropriate labels?
 

stealth2

Under the Radar Member
OP - do you understand why the statements were not slanderous?

Hint: Google is your friend. So is a dictionary.
 

RRevak

Senior Member
How is he the alleged cheater? He says he never slept with this woman his wife is accusing him of sleeping with. And she hasn't come on here to say she believes he slept with this woman. So where's the allegement (OK not a word but you know what I mean)?
Because people who didn't do anything wrong wouldn't be so concerned about the potential of having the person they did "wrong" things with being questioned. They also wouldn't be so concerned that they log onto a legal website to find out whether the person doing the questioning could be stopped. Either this guy has something else to hide that he doesn't want outted by an angry soon-to-be ex, or he actually did sleep with this "friend".


Don't worry, I picked up what you were putting down :p
 
That's not actually true.... in that sense.

Yes, Texas is a community property state - but this does not equate to a 50/50 allocation. The court can consider marital fault.

Okay I tried and couldn't figure out how to make this easier to read, so that's an absolute fail on my part. Regardless, this comes straight from the mouth... or fingers... of a Texas attorney:

I've bolded the important bits.

(If you actually read that whole thing, kudos!)
Thanks for the info, can you please cite your source?

We don't have any property to divide, actually. She does have some 401k, I don't, but i won't be going after that unless she gets nasty with me. She would only be doing this in order to cause harm to me, no reason other than that. Our house was in her name when we married, and we have no bank accounts together, etc. I can see her doing that, if possible, she loves to fight and loves drama. However, I'm not sure why a judge would even allow such a thing, considering it would have no bearing at all on the outcome of our divorce.

Can someone please remove the comments from the people above who are just trolling? thanks
 

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