What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? Idaho
Greetings, 6-years ago purchaser bought real property from seller. The original sales agreement stated the property had not been surveyed but if a
problem arose, seller would "take care of it."
3-years ago, original agreement was amended and all language relating to the property line was removed. The snake-of-a-seller also added language that he "cannot be sued."
A few months ago buyer discovered seller had the property surveyed prior to closing (6 years go) and then intentionally misrepresented and failed to disclose where the actual property line boundary line was - off by an acre!
Because the first sales agreement is fraudulent, it is void. Does that make all future agreements - that rely on the first (now void) agreement - null and void as well?
Will the "you cannot sue me" portion of the amended second agreement be upheld even though the seller's sole purpose in including it was an attempt to wash his hands clean?
Greetings, 6-years ago purchaser bought real property from seller. The original sales agreement stated the property had not been surveyed but if a
problem arose, seller would "take care of it."
3-years ago, original agreement was amended and all language relating to the property line was removed. The snake-of-a-seller also added language that he "cannot be sued."
A few months ago buyer discovered seller had the property surveyed prior to closing (6 years go) and then intentionally misrepresented and failed to disclose where the actual property line boundary line was - off by an acre!
Because the first sales agreement is fraudulent, it is void. Does that make all future agreements - that rely on the first (now void) agreement - null and void as well?
Will the "you cannot sue me" portion of the amended second agreement be upheld even though the seller's sole purpose in including it was an attempt to wash his hands clean?