What is the name of your state?What is the name of your state? Texas
When advertising a "home for sale-to be moved at buyer's expense", the "buyer" - we corresponded by email. I prepared a purchase agreement that was agreed to by the husband. Everything was discussed via email including the price of the home and terms and conditions. All emails have their type-written names at the bottom. However, they never returned the purchase agreement.
In order for the home to be moved, preparations were requested by the home-mover hired by the "buyer". The "Buyer" made alterations to the home in preparation of the move. He removed the carport. He also hired people to remove the storage area (to which he has not paid). The home-mover made alterations to the home in preparation of the move as well. The home-mover removed the front porch and jacked the home up and secured the entire house on beams for transportation.
At this point we still had not been paid. I have various emails discussing this and the fact that the home mover had informed my family they would be ready to transport the home in a week. I gave a daily update to the "buyer" as to the events happening on my property. I have "read" receipts that he was aware of this. As stated by the home-mover, he transported the home as he originally had indicated. The "buyer" was aware of the actual move within 20 minutes of them arriving on my property the day of transporting (which was at 8:30am) not to mention prior to that as well. The "buyer" contacted their mover at 5:30pm and asked that they drop the home. The home is currently at a storage area accruing storage fees. The home-mover has not been paid as well. This took place over 6 weeks ago. We still have not been paid for the home.
The "buyer" just notifed me via email that they no longer wish to purchase the home. A realtor informed me due to the alterations and transporation of the home, the "buyer" sealed the deal without signing on the dotted line and returning the purchase agreement. Is this true? I would think so. Would all the email correspondence be binding as well? What business code would this fall under? I am currently in the process of preparing a demand letter for payment.
Any suggestions would be appreciated.
When advertising a "home for sale-to be moved at buyer's expense", the "buyer" - we corresponded by email. I prepared a purchase agreement that was agreed to by the husband. Everything was discussed via email including the price of the home and terms and conditions. All emails have their type-written names at the bottom. However, they never returned the purchase agreement.
In order for the home to be moved, preparations were requested by the home-mover hired by the "buyer". The "Buyer" made alterations to the home in preparation of the move. He removed the carport. He also hired people to remove the storage area (to which he has not paid). The home-mover made alterations to the home in preparation of the move as well. The home-mover removed the front porch and jacked the home up and secured the entire house on beams for transportation.
At this point we still had not been paid. I have various emails discussing this and the fact that the home mover had informed my family they would be ready to transport the home in a week. I gave a daily update to the "buyer" as to the events happening on my property. I have "read" receipts that he was aware of this. As stated by the home-mover, he transported the home as he originally had indicated. The "buyer" was aware of the actual move within 20 minutes of them arriving on my property the day of transporting (which was at 8:30am) not to mention prior to that as well. The "buyer" contacted their mover at 5:30pm and asked that they drop the home. The home is currently at a storage area accruing storage fees. The home-mover has not been paid as well. This took place over 6 weeks ago. We still have not been paid for the home.
The "buyer" just notifed me via email that they no longer wish to purchase the home. A realtor informed me due to the alterations and transporation of the home, the "buyer" sealed the deal without signing on the dotted line and returning the purchase agreement. Is this true? I would think so. Would all the email correspondence be binding as well? What business code would this fall under? I am currently in the process of preparing a demand letter for payment.
Any suggestions would be appreciated.
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