R
roselai66
Guest
I live in the State of Texas and my husband had a house that was inherited to him by his Grandmother when she passed away. And yes, we were married the time of the inheritance. My husband sold the house and we used that money as a down-payment on another house (which is a considerable amount of money). We are now separated and my question is this: If we were to divorce, is my share in the house equal to his?