justalayman
Senior Member
well, we don't know when the will was even written so we wouldn't not know who the wife was when it was written. The intent could have been the first wife.CameronNewport;2532606]There are still other problems with that argument.
When a court interprets a will, it's main concern is the intent of the decedent. A court would not interpret a will based on a legal technicality such as the validity of the second marriage. Based on the facts shared by the OP, a reasonable judge would probably read "wife" to mean the OP's mother.
and..
If there never was a divorce, it would not be possible to determine who the decedent considered to be "the wife" as he would know his first wife was still his wife and of course others would argue he lived with and accepted the illegitimate wife as "the wife", so, regardless of his subsequent illegal marriage to the second wife, a court would almost be forced to acknowledge the first wife as "the wife".
So, the decision would be very fact specific and as such, it would be impossible to determine how a court would rule in any given claim.
.and SoL has run. Yes, I agree, it's a moot point.Anyway, it's all moot now: The mother was mentioned by name. The brother is a full brother (not half)