Whyte Noise
Senior Member
Question about exempt/unexempt employees
What is the name of your state? Tennessee
Patty, I noticed in another thread here:
https://forum.freeadvice.com/showthread.php?t=278812
You told the poster the following:
My husband works for a national hotel chain. He's been with this company for 3 years, and we moved here to TN last year as part of a job transfer, a new title, and better pay. He was hired in as the Night Auditor/Night Manager at a rate of $400 per week salary. Now, the kicker is... he would work 50 hours, but only get paid for 40 at $10 an hour. For some reason, they said that their payroll wasn't set up to do salary, just hourly, even though his pay stubs clearly state "salary" on them. So, instead of inputting him $400 a week base rate it was 40 hours @ $10 an hour (for his $400 a week salary), even though he worked 5 10 hour shifts per week for a total of 50 hours per week (11PM - 9AM).
With me so far? Gosh, I hope so.
He was promoted to Front Desk Supervisor earlier this year and his pay rate stayed the same; $400 per week. He had his one year review in June, and received a 4% pay raise for each pay period. So, now he's making $416 per week. Yeah, we're rolling in the dough. He is still working 50 hours a week (7AM - 5 PM 5 days a week), and getting paid $10.40 for 40 hours of work, per his paycheck even though it says in big bold letters SALARY and his hours say "80". (he gets paid every 2 weeks.)
Now... if what you said and what I read on that website are correct, he should be making (as a SALARIED employee) at least $455 per week to be an exempt employee, correct? And if he's not being paid that much, then he is a non-exempt employee and the employer is required by federal law to pay time and a half for the 10 hours of overtime he works each week?
Do I have that right?
I will say that the company is a franchise and independantly owned but still bears the major hotel chains name. Don't know if that will matter or not. I will also say that some weeks he does have 3 days off instead of 2 as well. However, there are times when someone calls out and he's the one left pulling a double shift because of it, and last week and this week so far, he's worked 13 straight days without a day off, with 2 double shifts thrown in there (last Saturday and last Monday). He won't be off until *possibly* Friday this week.
The way I see it, he doesn't meet the exempt status because he doesn't make $455 per week. Otherwise, he'd be under the Administrative Exemption as he meets all other requirements listed on the DOL's website. Since he doesn't meet the exempt status, he should be paid time and 1/2 of his current pay rate for the overtime he works in the weeks he works it.
If I'm correct in what I just said, what, if anything, does he need to do and has his employer been violating federal law for the past 16 months in regards to his pay?
*****Yes, I have insomnia*****
Edited to add: Since his hire date of 06/10/04 he's not clocked in or out on the time clock. As a salaried employee, he was told he didn't need to. Could this be a potential problem for him "if" his employer does indeed owe him any backpay for the past 16 months? Without time records to show his actual start and ending times, all he has are pay stubs showing SALARY, 80 hours per pay period, and $832 in gross wages (which was $800 on the pay stubs before his 4% salary increase). Will those pay stubs be enough "proof" that he wasn't making the $455 per week/$910 per pay period?
Also, when did the $455 amount take effect? In reading the DOL's site I came across a document where it used to be $155 a week, but I saw no dates listed on either that one, or the $455/week one.
OK, I'm going to bed now, I hope.
What is the name of your state? Tennessee
Patty, I noticed in another thread here:
https://forum.freeadvice.com/showthread.php?t=278812
You told the poster the following:
I went to the Dept. of Labor's website to look up who is considered an exempt employee, and found the cite of the $455 a week pay for salaried employees in order for that employee to be exempt from overtime.pattytx said:There are no "laws" regarding how much you have to be paid, other than minimum wage if you are a nonexempt employee, or $455/wk (federal minimum) if you are an exempt employee.
My husband works for a national hotel chain. He's been with this company for 3 years, and we moved here to TN last year as part of a job transfer, a new title, and better pay. He was hired in as the Night Auditor/Night Manager at a rate of $400 per week salary. Now, the kicker is... he would work 50 hours, but only get paid for 40 at $10 an hour. For some reason, they said that their payroll wasn't set up to do salary, just hourly, even though his pay stubs clearly state "salary" on them. So, instead of inputting him $400 a week base rate it was 40 hours @ $10 an hour (for his $400 a week salary), even though he worked 5 10 hour shifts per week for a total of 50 hours per week (11PM - 9AM).
With me so far? Gosh, I hope so.
He was promoted to Front Desk Supervisor earlier this year and his pay rate stayed the same; $400 per week. He had his one year review in June, and received a 4% pay raise for each pay period. So, now he's making $416 per week. Yeah, we're rolling in the dough. He is still working 50 hours a week (7AM - 5 PM 5 days a week), and getting paid $10.40 for 40 hours of work, per his paycheck even though it says in big bold letters SALARY and his hours say "80". (he gets paid every 2 weeks.)
Now... if what you said and what I read on that website are correct, he should be making (as a SALARIED employee) at least $455 per week to be an exempt employee, correct? And if he's not being paid that much, then he is a non-exempt employee and the employer is required by federal law to pay time and a half for the 10 hours of overtime he works each week?
Do I have that right?
I will say that the company is a franchise and independantly owned but still bears the major hotel chains name. Don't know if that will matter or not. I will also say that some weeks he does have 3 days off instead of 2 as well. However, there are times when someone calls out and he's the one left pulling a double shift because of it, and last week and this week so far, he's worked 13 straight days without a day off, with 2 double shifts thrown in there (last Saturday and last Monday). He won't be off until *possibly* Friday this week.
The way I see it, he doesn't meet the exempt status because he doesn't make $455 per week. Otherwise, he'd be under the Administrative Exemption as he meets all other requirements listed on the DOL's website. Since he doesn't meet the exempt status, he should be paid time and 1/2 of his current pay rate for the overtime he works in the weeks he works it.
If I'm correct in what I just said, what, if anything, does he need to do and has his employer been violating federal law for the past 16 months in regards to his pay?
*****Yes, I have insomnia*****
Edited to add: Since his hire date of 06/10/04 he's not clocked in or out on the time clock. As a salaried employee, he was told he didn't need to. Could this be a potential problem for him "if" his employer does indeed owe him any backpay for the past 16 months? Without time records to show his actual start and ending times, all he has are pay stubs showing SALARY, 80 hours per pay period, and $832 in gross wages (which was $800 on the pay stubs before his 4% salary increase). Will those pay stubs be enough "proof" that he wasn't making the $455 per week/$910 per pay period?
Also, when did the $455 amount take effect? In reading the DOL's site I came across a document where it used to be $155 a week, but I saw no dates listed on either that one, or the $455/week one.
OK, I'm going to bed now, I hope.
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