I am looking for research material to help settle an argument about why churches are prohibited from specific political activity.
My "friend" contends this prohibition is rooted in the 1st amendment and that is why it exists in the tax code. He says it's to keep religion out of government.
I contend that it has nothing to do with the 1st amendment, and that prohibition exists for churches for the same reason it exists for all non-profit/charitable organizations that fall under the 501 tax code. And that reason is the conflict of interest it presents when they participate in lobbying for legislation or endorsing candidates that could influence their tax exempt status or availability of federal funds/grants.
I’ve read through some of the material from the IRS, but it doesn’t give any insight of the origin of the code that was enacted some 50 years ago.
Does anybody have some links or have some insight they could share?
My "friend" contends this prohibition is rooted in the 1st amendment and that is why it exists in the tax code. He says it's to keep religion out of government.
I contend that it has nothing to do with the 1st amendment, and that prohibition exists for churches for the same reason it exists for all non-profit/charitable organizations that fall under the 501 tax code. And that reason is the conflict of interest it presents when they participate in lobbying for legislation or endorsing candidates that could influence their tax exempt status or availability of federal funds/grants.
I’ve read through some of the material from the IRS, but it doesn’t give any insight of the origin of the code that was enacted some 50 years ago.
Does anybody have some links or have some insight they could share?
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