luckymortal
New member
Hi. We bought a foreclosure in Indiana last month that was listed as .8 acres with two houses.
Now, the previous owner claims he still owns a chunk right down the middle of the property, making the whole thing impossible and worthless.
We have the deeds for both sides and the order of combination combining the lot with one of our parcels.
Our name is on the tax records but the other guy’s name is on GIS.
Our lawyer says “all that matters is who is on the deed.”
But there is no deed! The records office says there is no deed anymore. It has a record that the parcel was permanently combined with our lot, and we have that order of combination. The previous owner’s name is not on any deed, nor was there ever a transfer of deed or ownership to him.
But the auditor says “that doesn’t matter, the sheriff didn’t transfer a deed to us so we don’t own it.” Which means the previous owner does even if he doesn’t have a deed, and we have a deed and an order of combination that combined the property to the lot we have a deed for. Did the order of combination combine the lot permanently to this other guy? I thought that required a deed! Or did it combine the lot to the other property as the document says?
WHO THE HECK OWNS THIS LOT?
Right now we are legally responsible for the taxes, but are told he owns it. What?
Now, the previous owner claims he still owns a chunk right down the middle of the property, making the whole thing impossible and worthless.
We have the deeds for both sides and the order of combination combining the lot with one of our parcels.
Our name is on the tax records but the other guy’s name is on GIS.
Our lawyer says “all that matters is who is on the deed.”
But there is no deed! The records office says there is no deed anymore. It has a record that the parcel was permanently combined with our lot, and we have that order of combination. The previous owner’s name is not on any deed, nor was there ever a transfer of deed or ownership to him.
But the auditor says “that doesn’t matter, the sheriff didn’t transfer a deed to us so we don’t own it.” Which means the previous owner does even if he doesn’t have a deed, and we have a deed and an order of combination that combined the property to the lot we have a deed for. Did the order of combination combine the lot permanently to this other guy? I thought that required a deed! Or did it combine the lot to the other property as the document says?
WHO THE HECK OWNS THIS LOT?
Right now we are legally responsible for the taxes, but are told he owns it. What?
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