Johndeere720
Junior Member
What is the name of your state? OHIO
Hello,
Divorce was finalized Nov 9, 2007. Docs said that I would have 30 days to sign the QDRO giving to my ex-wife a portion of my 401k. QDRO docs finally arrived today. March 10, 2008. 4 months later. I will have my atty review the QDRO, but I'd appreciate your input as well - as I've recieved good info from here in the past.
What does this mean:
6. this order assigns to the alternate payee(wife)...a lump sum equal to $20,400 of the vested balance as of Nov 15, 2007 and any and all interest and/or investment gains thereafter earned or investment losses incurred on said amount, or if less, the entire amount of the participants (me) account determined as of the date a separate account is established for the alternate payee. blah, blah....
MY QUESTION....what does that mean? "her" portion has decreased in value by about $2500....
I take it to mean that she can get any gains and/or any losses, but if that is less, she can get the entire amount of the plan...therefore, she will for sure get the $20,400???
Is that correct?
I know my atty might have made a mistake when we didnt define the account balance....subject to loss/gains, but not sure how we could have done that.
Since they took 120 days, not 30 days to get the docs to me, is there any recourse to reduce her portion of the assignment down to $18,000?
Why should I bear the loss of her investment as a result of the delays of her atty?
Thanks in advance!
Hello,
Divorce was finalized Nov 9, 2007. Docs said that I would have 30 days to sign the QDRO giving to my ex-wife a portion of my 401k. QDRO docs finally arrived today. March 10, 2008. 4 months later. I will have my atty review the QDRO, but I'd appreciate your input as well - as I've recieved good info from here in the past.
What does this mean:
6. this order assigns to the alternate payee(wife)...a lump sum equal to $20,400 of the vested balance as of Nov 15, 2007 and any and all interest and/or investment gains thereafter earned or investment losses incurred on said amount, or if less, the entire amount of the participants (me) account determined as of the date a separate account is established for the alternate payee. blah, blah....
MY QUESTION....what does that mean? "her" portion has decreased in value by about $2500....
I take it to mean that she can get any gains and/or any losses, but if that is less, she can get the entire amount of the plan...therefore, she will for sure get the $20,400???
Is that correct?
I know my atty might have made a mistake when we didnt define the account balance....subject to loss/gains, but not sure how we could have done that.
Since they took 120 days, not 30 days to get the docs to me, is there any recourse to reduce her portion of the assignment down to $18,000?
Why should I bear the loss of her investment as a result of the delays of her atty?
Thanks in advance!