ZippidyDoDa
Junior Member
What is the name of your state?
California
I belong to a general chat forum and this question was posted:
"The jury returned a sentencing recommendation Monday, Dec.13th in the Scott Peterson trial. But the judge will do the formal sentencing on Feb. 25 - nearly two months later!
I could understand it if this were not the judge who presided over the trial and didn't hear everything that was presented. It would certainly take time to review the whole matter. But that's not the case here. This WAS the same judge that heard everything the jury heard (and more, for that matter - as he ruled on motions about what could and could not be entered in evidence).
So exactly what is the problem here? Surely he has already reached a decision just as the jury did. Is there some silly California law that specificities that long time gap? Seems to me that must be it because otherwise it makes no sense at all (to me). That's why I posted this in the Political Forum because if that's the case I think people should be contacting their lawmakers. Perhaps that was a reasonable thing (?) back in 1880 or so but it hardly seems fitting today."
Can anyone give me some insight on this observation?
Thanks!
California
I belong to a general chat forum and this question was posted:
"The jury returned a sentencing recommendation Monday, Dec.13th in the Scott Peterson trial. But the judge will do the formal sentencing on Feb. 25 - nearly two months later!
I could understand it if this were not the judge who presided over the trial and didn't hear everything that was presented. It would certainly take time to review the whole matter. But that's not the case here. This WAS the same judge that heard everything the jury heard (and more, for that matter - as he ruled on motions about what could and could not be entered in evidence).
So exactly what is the problem here? Surely he has already reached a decision just as the jury did. Is there some silly California law that specificities that long time gap? Seems to me that must be it because otherwise it makes no sense at all (to me). That's why I posted this in the Political Forum because if that's the case I think people should be contacting their lawmakers. Perhaps that was a reasonable thing (?) back in 1880 or so but it hardly seems fitting today."
Can anyone give me some insight on this observation?
Thanks!
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