• FreeAdvice has a new Terms of Service and Privacy Policy, effective May 25, 2018.
    By continuing to use this site, you are consenting to our Terms of Service and use of cookies.

rights?

Accident - Bankruptcy - Criminal Law / DUI - Business - Consumer - Employment - Family - Immigration - Real Estate - Tax - Traffic - Wills   Please click a topic or scroll down for more.

daydreeemzz

Junior Member
What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? Nebraska

If my husband and i own a home (my name is listed first on the deed) but the loan is only in his name do I have any rights to the home?
 


justalayman

Senior Member
first or last makes no difference. How title is held does make a difference but as it stands, unless there is something specified other than a 50/50 share, you are at least a 1/2 owner of the home. Since you are the only signatory party to the mortgage, you owe all of the debt of the mortgage loan.
 

nextwife

Senior Member
She doesn't PERSONALLY owe, but the collateral has a lien in the amount of the mortgage, so she INDIRECTLY owes it to retain the collateral. In other words, her interest can be foreclosed out regardless of whether she owes on the mortgage. I point this out because some people get very confused on this, and I want the poster to understand that.
 

Find the Right Lawyer for Your Legal Issue!

Fast, Free, and Confidential
data-ad-format="auto">
Top