I worked as an independent contractor for 3 months and during a good bulk of that time I was having two checks written to me under one name (which could be easily varified since there is clearly a point where I made and x amount steadily and then more than double that amount steadily only to then have the previously steady check amounts proceeding). This was done because my father, who I was living with and whom had given me the job, didn't have identification at the times nor the means to secure one. I had even asked both him and his boss if I would be taxed for the amount and each had said "do not worry about it". (This is between February and April of 2013). Anyways, I figured this was all fine and dandy and seeing as how I made less than $9k (which is untaxable) I figured it would have been a waste of time to file a 1099 (as impetuous as that may sound to a tax expert) but regardless I was told time and time again to "not worry about it". Well, lo and behold, December of 2015 I receive a statement from the IRS that I owe over $4k and it said that I had received MORE THAN $13.000! I know for a fact (and making only $80 a day I would have had to have worked over 162 days to incurr such an amount and had only worked there for not even 3 months, minus weekends). So therein lies my inquires: if my dad will readily explain to the IRS that two checks were written as one to me, will they understand this (with proof given of course, albeit checks were written only under my name)? If so, is my dad's boss in trouble for doing so? Thank you for taking the time to read this and for any input you can provide for this.