Clearification...
Thank you all for helping me understand that I may be asking my questions in the wrong forum. I apologize for any inconvenience upon you. My questions are regarding litigation and courtroom procedures in a traffic infraction case. My area of understanding is as a legal researcher in the field of income tax both state and especially federal. I'm not as familiar with the standard, vanilla, everyday courtroom procedures as I would like to be. That's why I'm asking questions here and am now aware that I may be in the wrong forum even though this is a traffic ticket matter.
The heart of the matter is that my daughter is considered the "Defendant" in a traffic infraction trial in about 10 days. The city attorney's office prosecuting the case has violated more California Penal Codes and sections of the State Bar Act than I would even care to mention... so has the Commissioner... in this case prior to the trial. Complaints will be filed on each of them prior to the case to the Presiding Judge, California State Bar and other authoritative agencies, departments and organizations including but not limited to the Los Angeles District Attorney [especially after my conversation with one of their criminal investigators]. It just baffles my intelligence when the assistant city attorney from the office prosecuting this case tells me directly in a conversation with him that he can make up his own rules whenever he feels like it. Amazing.
However, my questions were simply asking if the plantiff within a courtroom procedure is considered a "witness against" the defendant as parties to the case. If so, where would I be able to find that stated in any manner in any of the California codes? That's all I'm asking.
To expound as to why I am asking this question... If my daughter as the "Defendant" has the right to "see, hear and question every witness against her" at the trial as stated by the Superior Court of California, wouldn't she have the right to call on and question the plantiff if the plantiff is considered a "witness against" her in this case?
By the way... "oberauerdorf", regarding the definition of the term "libel"... I do know the meaning of the term as stated in my 7th edition of Black's Law Dictionary...
"libel, vb. 1. To defame (someone) in a permanent medium, exp. in writing."
Also from the 7th edition of my Black's Law Dictionary...
"defamatory statement. A statement that tends to injure the reputation of a person referred to in it. * The statement is likely to lower that person in the estimation of resonable people and in particular to cause that person to be regarded with feelings of hatred, contempt, ridecule, fear, or dislike."
I didn't come to this forum to be rideculed or disliked by anyone. I just wanted to see if anyone could intelligently answer my questions.
Therefore, should I be a "female" and not a "male" as "Iwpat" so distinctly sterotyped me to be, then that would be a definite defamation of character within this public forum of private members in writing without any documentation to prove his sexist, prejudiced, degatory and defamatory statement. Should I happen to be "male" and not "female" as he seems to enjoy sterotyping people by their method of writing, then I pity his wife who has to put up with somebody like that who makes derogatory comments about her in a public forum like this. Regarding "Iwpat", Mr T says it well... "Pity the fool!" I suppose "Iwpat" will never know whether I am male or female.
Also, "oberauerdorf", pursuant to the Terms and Conditions of this forum which states in part...
"... Use of the Forums is subject to our Terms and Conditions which prohibit advertisements, solicitations or other commercial messages, or false, defamatory, abusive, vulgar, or harassing messages, and subject violators to a fee for each improper posting. All postings reflect the views of the author but become the property of FreeAdvice."
... I will take you up on the contact you gave me should any more of such negative comments arise.
Thank you
ChoixDuJour