JustAPal00
Senior Member
I don't think you understand how it works. When your car is totaled, the insurance company is saying that it will be more cost effective to buy you another one than to fix your damaged one. So they take your old car and give you enough money to go out in your area and find a similar car. Since you can't find the same car (no two used cars are exactly alike), you may have to pay more to get a nicer car, or save a little and buy a worse car. Now the insurance company owns your old car, and you bought a new one. In your case, you want to buy your old car back, and they are willing to sell it to you for $458. It doesn't matter if the other guy has insurance or not (for the sake of how the numbers work). If you sue him for $5000 in damages to your vehicle, and he can prove that the average price in your area for a similar vehicle is $3500, you will get $3500 and he will get your car. Then if you want to buy it back, he might sell it to you to recoup some of what he just paid you!The insurance company has the good fortune in being able to total it and claim loss of salvage income. It seemed to us that they *were* deducting the salvage income from the settlement, because they subtracted it from the baseline value.
Am I wrong in assuming that if no insurance companies were involved, that we would not even be discussing loss of salvage income? If the other driver had no insurance, and we had no "uninsured motorist", wouldn't we be able to sue the other driver in small claims court for the fair market value of the truck, then that would be that?