So, an EOB arrived the other day for the child's ortho... it indicated that the child had been in for x-rays, etc. Upon talking with the insurance company, they confirmed that yes, there was a few new service dates.
In speaking with the ortho's office, they confirmed that the child is seen there monthly for ortho work. When questioned about billing, they stated that mom brought in a copy of the custody papers, which state that they have joint custody and mom is the parent of primary residence. The ortho interpreted this to say that mom has primary custody, and therefore could approve of the treatment. Mom has made the complete payments to them, and they will not be seeking payment directly from dad unless mom doesn't provide the complete payment.
When asked, they said that dad's approval was tacit, since they sent him the financial agreement and treatment plan and he did not let them know that he did not approve.
In reality, dad has informed them multiple times that he is not comfortable signing any financial agreement or providing approval until the insurance issue was worked out, since that would save parties $1000's.
The insurance issue still has not been worked out. Dad is concerned that mom will try to get the money from him later. This ortho work was not necessary, and mom has made the unilateral decision to have it done. Mom also did not inform dad that she was going forward without his consent.
Question - does dad need to address this to mom, stating the obvious - that he did not consent to the orthodontia? Is it better to be proactive, or wait until/if she tries to get him to pay in the future. The child just started the work in January, and mom has never, over 7 years, sent any requests to have any medical expenses reimbursed (dad does not know whether there were actually any to be reimbursed previously).
What do you think?
Thanks.