I understand that in your husband's case, it was many months ago...however, I don't understand how 30 days is reasonably enough time to submit, or then you don't have to pay. It seems to me the judge was trying to get Mom to be more aware that she needs to sends bills to Dad promptly, that is why the time limit...however, I just got a bill from my children's pediatrician from 3 months ago, after back and forth with insurance and such. Yes, in your husband's case, it was 6 months ago, but as another poster pointed out, does it actually say that dad has no financial responsibility if it is more than 30 days? Mom can claim she never got the bill from the doc, and then when she did, she paid it and sent it to dad. Who is to say that the bills didn't get lost in the mail? Maybe her argument will be she sent it to dad within 30 days of her receipt.
Is this worth going back to court over?
Also, isn't it better if the doctors just send his half due to him? That way, you know his half is paid? Some parents are worried that the other parent just pockets the money, or whatever...wouldn't the doc mailing to your husband directly be easier for all involved, and cut out Mom's role in his portion of the bills altogether? If he knows he pays half, who cares if it comes from Mom or the doc? Or does he just not want to pay for it and thinks he doesn't have to if the 30 days rule goes over?