Ok, she filed motions. The court just awarded her custody and restraining order. The sherriff is serving BIL this afternoon.Then she didn't file orders. She filed motions for orders. In other words she asked the court for such. Her and dad still have equal rights. She can go to auntie's house and pick up the children if she wants. The police still will not help however.
I don't know all the legal jargon, I just assumed anyone reading could deduce what I was trying to find out by the context of my questions.
Should this have been worded "filed a motion"?I suspect he is blowing smoke about having tempory custody. If my sister files for custody, will that reveal whether or not he has actually filed?
This should be a simple yes or no but there again, I don't know the jargon.So my question is; does a sherriff, or other legal official, have to present my sister with a temporary custody order? He claims he has papers but he is most certainly lying.
I understand fully if he doesn't have the order she can go get the kids. It seems like everyone answers revolve around questions I haven't even asked.
Like this one.
I at no time asked if he could take the children or not. I asked if he could claim he had custody w/o serving her first. Refer to my first post.There is no "consensus" in family laws. The law is the law is the law. Simple as that. Dad has as much right to his children as does Mom.
And obvious answers that render my questions pointless like this one.
Would I be asking these questions if she had the custody orders?Well , does she have the orders in hand ?
Has anyone even tried to comprehend anything I wrote in any of my posts? I get the idea that the people here are more interested in impressing everyone with their knowledge of legalese than helping newbs with legal advice.
At least I can walk away knowing the difference between filing an order and filing a motion for an order, jeez.....