I leave in Texas and have been with the same woman for 14 years. We have lived together for about 12 years. We have had a joint bank account for several years and have filed joint tax returns with seperate last names for two years. We also have a 4 year old son. I own a business and some properties including the house we reside in and my name is the only name on those properties and business. I owned the opened the business about 14 years ago around the time we were starting to date. I purchased the home about 4 years later. We do own a vacation home jointly. I bought her an engagement ring about 4 years ago. She now says she does not want to get married. She has never used my last name or represented herself as being married to me and only wears the engagement ring in front of her family. I have recently supected her of cheating on me and am trying to find out if we need to actually get a divorce and what assests if any she would have claim to. After researching online her is what the Texas law says and aparently all three criteria must be present at the same time:
In Texas, to prove the existence of an informal marriage (more frequently called a common-law marriage) between a man and a woman, the proponent must establish by a preponderance of the evidence either (1) that a declaration of their marriage has been signed as provided by Family Code chapter 2, subchapter E, or (2) that the parties agreed to be married and thereafter lived together in Texas as husband and wife and represented to others in Texas that they were married.
So am I common law married? To me it does not seem so. Also if we are not common law married does she have any type of claim regarding my business and property due to the length of time together?
In Texas, to prove the existence of an informal marriage (more frequently called a common-law marriage) between a man and a woman, the proponent must establish by a preponderance of the evidence either (1) that a declaration of their marriage has been signed as provided by Family Code chapter 2, subchapter E, or (2) that the parties agreed to be married and thereafter lived together in Texas as husband and wife and represented to others in Texas that they were married.
So am I common law married? To me it does not seem so. Also if we are not common law married does she have any type of claim regarding my business and property due to the length of time together?
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