This is a more precise explanation to my original post.
I worked for a company and as the Vice President the owner of the company (The President) purchased an automobile that would be for my use. There was no financing or loan as it was paid in full with company money. The President offered for me to buy the car for myself from the company when my own car quit working. He figured since I drove the car all the time and I liked it that it would be a win-win for the both of us.
There was not a contract on the purchase initially as I offered to pay $300.00 on the vehicle per month. Due to extreme mental health issues of the President he was later committed to the state mental hospital and subsequently closed the company on 1 days notice. I was asked to return the car by him although I had not missed a payment and had paid over half of the loan off. After other board member advising him that was not right to do he agreed to sign the title over to me (in the company name not his) and he (his personal self) would become the lien holder. I was given a bill of sale that was the contract that stated I was to pay $300.00 a month and the remaining u to date amount owed on the vehicle. This was in November.
Now my issue is as follows. This man has major mental health issues, he has constantly harassed me via email (by phone as well and social networking until I finally had to block him and change my number). This man told me numerous times even though I am married that he loved me (while employed) and even stated in an email that the car was a gift. I have continued to make my payments (at this time I am behind by half of 1 payment) and yet because he lives over 100 miles away I have to mail the payment. If the payment is not there by its due date (now remember I said there was NO due date, NO payment terms, or any statute that he would take if repossession ever became necessary in the bill of sale contract at all) he will then impose a $75.00 fee for every late payment. I have never signed a contract stating such. He then sent an email saying payment has to be there by such and such day of the week. I have told him (since I am still looking for work as we live very rural) that my husband is making the car payment for me, he is paid every other Friday and I mail it that day. I cannot then predict when the post office will deliver it. This seems to infuriate him.
I am not trying to scam this man, I do not want to give him the car back because I have paid so much towards it, but I do not understand how he can just make up any rule he wants when he sees fit, and if he has called it a gift then why am I paying on a "gift." I thought a gift was just that, a gift. I say that with sarcasm of course. Can he do this? meaning changing the contract when there really isnt a contract to begin with, except for his basic terms in the bill of sale and harassing me.
I worked for a company and as the Vice President the owner of the company (The President) purchased an automobile that would be for my use. There was no financing or loan as it was paid in full with company money. The President offered for me to buy the car for myself from the company when my own car quit working. He figured since I drove the car all the time and I liked it that it would be a win-win for the both of us.
There was not a contract on the purchase initially as I offered to pay $300.00 on the vehicle per month. Due to extreme mental health issues of the President he was later committed to the state mental hospital and subsequently closed the company on 1 days notice. I was asked to return the car by him although I had not missed a payment and had paid over half of the loan off. After other board member advising him that was not right to do he agreed to sign the title over to me (in the company name not his) and he (his personal self) would become the lien holder. I was given a bill of sale that was the contract that stated I was to pay $300.00 a month and the remaining u to date amount owed on the vehicle. This was in November.
Now my issue is as follows. This man has major mental health issues, he has constantly harassed me via email (by phone as well and social networking until I finally had to block him and change my number). This man told me numerous times even though I am married that he loved me (while employed) and even stated in an email that the car was a gift. I have continued to make my payments (at this time I am behind by half of 1 payment) and yet because he lives over 100 miles away I have to mail the payment. If the payment is not there by its due date (now remember I said there was NO due date, NO payment terms, or any statute that he would take if repossession ever became necessary in the bill of sale contract at all) he will then impose a $75.00 fee for every late payment. I have never signed a contract stating such. He then sent an email saying payment has to be there by such and such day of the week. I have told him (since I am still looking for work as we live very rural) that my husband is making the car payment for me, he is paid every other Friday and I mail it that day. I cannot then predict when the post office will deliver it. This seems to infuriate him.
I am not trying to scam this man, I do not want to give him the car back because I have paid so much towards it, but I do not understand how he can just make up any rule he wants when he sees fit, and if he has called it a gift then why am I paying on a "gift." I thought a gift was just that, a gift. I say that with sarcasm of course. Can he do this? meaning changing the contract when there really isnt a contract to begin with, except for his basic terms in the bill of sale and harassing me.
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