Zigner
Senior Member, Non-Attorney
I find it completely mind boggling, although not surprising, that when a man comes here asking about cohabitation regarding a women shacking up and ending alimony, the advice is completely different from the same people when a woman is paying alimony to the man and trying prove cohabitation to terminate it.
And now even citing a 19th century criminal statute to justify their bias. Unbelievable!
Let me sum it up:
OP wants to know if the situation could be considered cohabitation. OP hopes it isn't because there are penalties if it is. OP is told that it would appear that the situation IS one of cohabitation. The reference to the statute was given as a guide towards how the state in question may define cohabitation.
Perhaps you misunderstood what the OP was being told? The answer I gave is not related to gender at all.