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Divorce and a Mortgage

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curiousintexas

Junior Member
What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? TX

Hello all,

My divorce was finalized in December and in the papers the house was awarded to me. We did not include any timeline or statement as to when the house had to be refinanced into my name only or sold.

Since then I have tried unsuccessfully to refinance with several different lenders. The mortgage is "underwater" and the loan is not backed by Fannie Mae or Freddie Mac so I have been told that I'm not eligible for special underwater refinance programs.

The ex has been hounding me relentlessly to either refinance or sell and has now stated that she has the right to show up at the house at any time with a cop - not quite why or what her reasoning would be for this but that's what she says.

I have said to her that I would sell the house if, in the event that it has to be sold at a loss she would be willing to come up with half the difference. She refuses to do this, so I feel as if my only option is to wait until I can pay the mortgage down enough so that there is equity in the house and I can refinance.

I sent all my bank statements to her mortgage company showing that she has not paid on this house in a year and she was able to buy a house.

My questions are:

1) Seeing as the divorce papers state that I was awarded the house, does she have a right to come to the property since her name is still on mortgage and title?
2) Since there is nothing in the divorce papers stating that she is responsible for half the underwater amount is there any way to make her pay half in the event the house is sold at a loss?
3) Can she force me to sell the house if I'm not able to refinance in say, a year?

Any advice would be sincerely appreciated.
 
Last edited:


LdiJ

Senior Member
Hello all,

My divorce was finalized in December and in the papers the house was awarded to me. We did not include any timeline or statement as to when the house had to be refinanced into my name only or sold.

Since then I have tried unsuccessfully to refinance with several different lenders. The mortgage is "underwater" and the loan is not backed by Fannie Mae or Freddie Mac so I have been told that I'm not eligible for special underwater refinance programs.

The ex has been hounding me relentlessly to either refinance or sell and has now stated that she has the right to show up at the house at any time with a cop - not quite why or what her reasoning would be for this but that's what she says.

I have said to her that I would sell the house if, in the event that it has to be sold at a loss she would be willing to come up with half the difference. She refuses to do this, so I feel as if my only option is to wait until I can pay the mortgage down enough so that there is equity in the house and I can refinance.

I sent all my bank statements to her mortgage company showing that she has not paid on this house in a year and she was able to buy a house.

My questions are:

1) Seeing as the divorce papers state that I was awarded the house, does she have a right to come to the property since her name is still on mortgage and title?
No, you were awarded the house in the divorce.

2) Since there is nothing in the divorce papers stating that she is responsible for half the underwater amount is there any way to make her pay half in the event the house is sold at a loss?
No, the house and the debt that goes with it are your responsibility.

3) Can she force me to sell the house if I'm not able to refinance in say, a year?

Any advice would be sincerely appreciated.
She cannot, but a judge possibly could if she were to bring the issue before a judge. I don't think that there is a guarantee either way since the property settlement didn't require you to refinance, or at least didn't require you to refinance within a specific period of time.

Please realize however that you are tying up her credit and naturally she is not going to be happy about that, just as you would not be happy if the situation were reversed.
 

curiousintexas

Junior Member
Thank you for your answers. I absolutely understand her situation however I cannot force anyone to approve me for a refinance and I do not have cash handy to make up the difference in case of either a refinance or sale.
 

curiousintexas

Junior Member
Have you attempted a mortgage assumption?
I'm actually in the process of filling out assumption paperwork right now, however my ex has said in the past that she is not comfortable with an assumption as she doesn't feel it completely releases her from liability. Is this true, and if I am approved for the assumption does she have to sign anything to finalize the process? The initial paperwork just asks for a copy of the divorce decree wherein it is stated that she no longer has an interest in the property.
 

Bali Hai

Senior Member
I'm actually in the process of filling out assumption paperwork right now, however my ex has said in the past that she is not comfortable with an assumption as she doesn't feel it completely releases her from liability. Is this true, and if I am approved for the assumption does she have to sign anything to finalize the process? The initial paperwork just asks for a copy of the divorce decree wherein it is stated that she no longer has an interest in the property.
Sounds like the ex is a royal nagging PITA.

Tell Miss Bossy that you don't have to do a damn thing without a court order.

And if something does come to fruition, make sure her name is removed from the title.
 

SESmama

Member
Generally, if the assumption is approved one spouse will receive a release from liability.
From: http://www.loansafe.org/mortgage-options-while-going-through-a-divorce

And

Both you and the lender will have to sign an assumption agreement setting out the terms of the assumption and releasing your former spouse from liability, although your lender may execute a separate release of liability form for your former spouse’s benefit.
From: http://info.legalzoom.com/can-assume-mortgage-after-divorce-24231.html
 

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