My plan allows up to 50% or $50k withdrawal, whichever is higher, for any reason, subject to some limitations. Matching is vested immediately.
My plan lists CURRENT balance and LOAN balance separately. Current balance does not include loan balance. During my divorce I took out a sizable loan to cover divorce associated expenses. When time came to split 401k, her attorney asked for CURRENT balance, which she got, and the 401k was divided based upon that amount only.
The current VALUE does not include loans. Because it is not a given a loan will be repaid. Changing jobs will often allow one to treat the loan as a withdrawal if they wish, though they would owe taxes and penalties.
If the order states division is to be valued at "date of disbursement" or "date of divorce", the plain letter of that is clear. It is not "trickery" or dishonest to work within that. In my case I gave the correct value of the plan on date of divorce, which is all they asked for. But even if the loan was challenged, the money was used in compliance with the standard restraining order against squandering or concealing marital assets. And divorces cost money and deplete community property. The spouse vacating the marital residence has higher upfront costs of living expenses setting up a new household. Not any different than the moving spouse using more than half the joint bank account for initial living expenses. It would have been fraudulent had I simply withdrawn the money and stashed it.
In OP's case, he would be doing nothing wrong by withdrawing only his post divorce contributions. It would legally be FOOLISH to do otherwise. If he leaves it in there, the PLAIN LETTER of the order guarantees that HALF of whatever he leaves in there is hers. Withdrawing it leaves a judge room to allow the withdrawal if that is challenged. Should he withdraw anything more than that, it would cross the line and leave him open to trouble.