rosalina123
Junior Member
I don't know if this is exclusively for US cases, but if there is somebody who would help me with this case who knows Ontario law, it would be very much appreciated.
Ok, here is the issue. There is a house in Ontario. On the Deed of the house, there are two owners, Ryan and Mark. As declared in the Title, it is a tenancy in common. Both Died in an accident in 2009, and neither left a will. We got a document from the spouse of Ryan in 2009 declaring that she relinquishes all her rights to the house. In 2012, she hired a lawyer to look after the interest of her late husband's estate, and claimed that half the house is her's. We maintain that she has no financial interest in the house. It is provable that at least 98% of all expenses, (down payment, closing costs, mortgages, bills, property taxes, insurance, maintenance and repairs) have been and are being baying my Mark and his spouse. So, the question is, how would the courts rule on this situation. Would they tend to say that in spite of all the payments made almost exclusively by Mark, the property value is split half & half, or would they tend to say that the party who has been paying for and maintaining the property has a right to it by virtue of the investment made? Also, would statue of limitations apply when 3 years have passed since her signing the declaration, and then going back on her declaration?
Thank you for your time.
Ok, here is the issue. There is a house in Ontario. On the Deed of the house, there are two owners, Ryan and Mark. As declared in the Title, it is a tenancy in common. Both Died in an accident in 2009, and neither left a will. We got a document from the spouse of Ryan in 2009 declaring that she relinquishes all her rights to the house. In 2012, she hired a lawyer to look after the interest of her late husband's estate, and claimed that half the house is her's. We maintain that she has no financial interest in the house. It is provable that at least 98% of all expenses, (down payment, closing costs, mortgages, bills, property taxes, insurance, maintenance and repairs) have been and are being baying my Mark and his spouse. So, the question is, how would the courts rule on this situation. Would they tend to say that in spite of all the payments made almost exclusively by Mark, the property value is split half & half, or would they tend to say that the party who has been paying for and maintaining the property has a right to it by virtue of the investment made? Also, would statue of limitations apply when 3 years have passed since her signing the declaration, and then going back on her declaration?
Thank you for your time.