Thanks for all the advice.
As far as the home goes she was never on the mortgage just the deed, and in the settlement and the granted divorce I was given exclusive rights to the property. I just need her to sign the deed over. The paperwork for the deed is less than a page and it is very simple just stating what the house is location and transfer from her and I to just myself. . . . . .
I will ignore as incidental your mistaken belief that the ex is on the deed but not the mortgage. (Which could only be true if you were the sole recorded owner of the home at the time the mortgage was created.
The central and yet unanswered question is whether or not the divorce decree in fact awarded you sole ownership of the home?!
Because now instead of that, you are saying that "I was given exclusive rights to the property". Exclusive rights to what?
If that is all the decree provides, then unless your ex wife is physically interfering with "your exclusive rights to the property", you can forget about having her held in contempt of court.
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Then you describe a "one page deed" as transferring title from her and you to you? (Whoever drafted it should give up the art.)
Because one does not deed land from oneself to oneself! To vest the title to the home in your sole name, the ex simply needs to deed over to you all of her right, title, equity and interest. Most commonly, in theses instances, by a quitclaim deed.
But if the ex was not ordered to sign over to you her marital ownership interest, and/or the decree itself was not suitably drafted as to be accepted for recording and thus vesting you with sole ownership and you don't wish this to drag on indefinitely . .
THEN you'll need to hire an attorney to sort it out. Its not brain surgery, but it is something that few laypersons, including you, are incapable of. Nor will you become capable by fooling around on the Internet.