criticalthinker
Member
What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? MA
Most of the resources I have read that explain an attorney's role in a real estate transaction usually frame it in the context of the buyer or seller. However few seem to mention legal representation of the lender in a financed purchased. I would appreciate some clarification about it.
Let's say a borrower hires an attorney to review some contracts (i.e., broker agreement, offer, P&S, etc) early in the home shopping process. He selects a property, runs everything by his attorney and signs off on the P&S. He then submits a loan app and the lender sends out the disclosure package containing the "right to select an attorney" document. Assume the borrower elects to select an attorney and lists the name of the attorney he had been using up to this point.
Am I correct to assume that the lender is now the attorney's client, not the borrower, from that point forward?
Would the borrower have to sign some sort of written consent and understanding of the potential conflict of interest in order to have the attorney continue to represent him as well? Or, at that point if the borrower felt it necessary to have his own representation, would he simply hire another attorney?
Thanks in advance.
CT
Most of the resources I have read that explain an attorney's role in a real estate transaction usually frame it in the context of the buyer or seller. However few seem to mention legal representation of the lender in a financed purchased. I would appreciate some clarification about it.
Let's say a borrower hires an attorney to review some contracts (i.e., broker agreement, offer, P&S, etc) early in the home shopping process. He selects a property, runs everything by his attorney and signs off on the P&S. He then submits a loan app and the lender sends out the disclosure package containing the "right to select an attorney" document. Assume the borrower elects to select an attorney and lists the name of the attorney he had been using up to this point.
Am I correct to assume that the lender is now the attorney's client, not the borrower, from that point forward?
Would the borrower have to sign some sort of written consent and understanding of the potential conflict of interest in order to have the attorney continue to represent him as well? Or, at that point if the borrower felt it necessary to have his own representation, would he simply hire another attorney?
Thanks in advance.
CT