SeekingadviceNV
Junior Member
I'm living in Nevada and I have been married since June 2012. My husband knows I want a divorce due to his infidelity (I have an abundance of proof) and will not contest the divorce. We have no children. We have one credit card and one car in the same name. We have a joint bank account but I have switched my direct deposit to my own account already. Our home is in his name......and his ex wife's. He has owned the home since 2009 and he and his ex wife were divorced 3 months after buying the home. He is now selling the home (the ex hasn't paid on the home in 4 & 1/2 years) and she's getting half! But I've paid for the last 2 and a half years or more. Am I entitled to any of the money from the sale of the house since I've been paying all this time? Everything else is cut and dry and simple but this part.
Secondly, is still really still entitled to half after not paying a single cent in 4 & 1/2 of the 5 years? Just because her name is on it?
Secondly, is still really still entitled to half after not paying a single cent in 4 & 1/2 of the 5 years? Just because her name is on it?