I'm thinking someone reasonable would agree. OP clearly knows that the loan needs to be repaid by him and would offset his equity distribution when the property sells. I'm also aware that others would trample his efforts. If done prudently I'm at a loss as to how this encumbers the other party, unless the other party is either spiteful or has a card up their sleeve to be played at a later date.He wouldn't even need the judge to agree if the other party agrees. However, what other party would agree to such a thing?