What is the name of your state (only U.S. law)? MA
Back in May of 2014, my fiance who had just moved in with me, convinced me to change my heating oil supplier to one she had used in her previous residence. She entered a price contract with this oil company for $3.599 per gallon which would be a fixed price of up to 1000 gallons of heating oil or the expiration date of April 30, 2015, which ever came first. She entered this contract after a pointed discussion with the oil company's representative that in the unlikely event that the price of oil went below the lock price of $3.599, we would be charged the lower price. Also agreed was a budgeted payment plan of $300 per month.
As we are all aware, oil prices have come crashing down over the past few months. However, the written contact signed by my fiance does not have any language for the lowering of the price in this scenario, the salesperson claims they never discussed a potential lower price adjustment, and we have been charged the $3.599 rate for our first 2 oil deliveries.
I have attempted to discuss with the supplier about the discrepancy, but not surprisingly they will not budge off the written contract terms. I have asked them if they would compromise on the rate somewhere in the middle, but to no avail.
I have been wondering if the contract is in fact enforceable by law. My fiance signed the contract, not me. Our residence is a single family home owned solely by me. Am I liable if I did not sign the contract and bound by its terms (including not using an additional supplier with a lower price)? If I am not, what is the extent to the liability of my fiance, since she doe not own a home/furnace which would require the purchase of heating oil. The contract is based on consumption, with automatic deliveries. If she has no usage requirements, does the contract simply expire on April 30th if she does not accept/purchase any oil deliveries? Also, if so, do I have any recourse to recover the prepayment funds held in escrow (all payments made by me by personal check), or can they keep the funds and allocate them however they want and at whatever rate they wish?
Thank you in advance for any advice of how or how not to proceed.
Back in May of 2014, my fiance who had just moved in with me, convinced me to change my heating oil supplier to one she had used in her previous residence. She entered a price contract with this oil company for $3.599 per gallon which would be a fixed price of up to 1000 gallons of heating oil or the expiration date of April 30, 2015, which ever came first. She entered this contract after a pointed discussion with the oil company's representative that in the unlikely event that the price of oil went below the lock price of $3.599, we would be charged the lower price. Also agreed was a budgeted payment plan of $300 per month.
As we are all aware, oil prices have come crashing down over the past few months. However, the written contact signed by my fiance does not have any language for the lowering of the price in this scenario, the salesperson claims they never discussed a potential lower price adjustment, and we have been charged the $3.599 rate for our first 2 oil deliveries.
I have attempted to discuss with the supplier about the discrepancy, but not surprisingly they will not budge off the written contract terms. I have asked them if they would compromise on the rate somewhere in the middle, but to no avail.
I have been wondering if the contract is in fact enforceable by law. My fiance signed the contract, not me. Our residence is a single family home owned solely by me. Am I liable if I did not sign the contract and bound by its terms (including not using an additional supplier with a lower price)? If I am not, what is the extent to the liability of my fiance, since she doe not own a home/furnace which would require the purchase of heating oil. The contract is based on consumption, with automatic deliveries. If she has no usage requirements, does the contract simply expire on April 30th if she does not accept/purchase any oil deliveries? Also, if so, do I have any recourse to recover the prepayment funds held in escrow (all payments made by me by personal check), or can they keep the funds and allocate them however they want and at whatever rate they wish?
Thank you in advance for any advice of how or how not to proceed.