Hi. Example: A husband buys the domain name in his ex wife’s name daisymiller.com for instance, creates an ironic website with a picture of his ex wife saying “Hi. I am Daisy. I am 40 years old. blah, blah, blah…” He writes 20 pages and at the very last end he writes “written by Daisy’s husband” None of the material is slanderous but it does reveal very personal details about her life like when she committed adultery, and it portrays her as irrational because she was. Then he sends an email to 350 of her and his friends inviting her to view the site.
Per fist amendment this should be legal as free speech because he clarified at the end that Daisy was not the author.
However, a Washington state judge found that this was harassment and issued a protection order.
Why? When I read the first amendment and when I read the harassment statutes they seem to be contradicting each other. Is it possible that something can be protected by the 1st amendment yet constitute harassment? I find that extremely confusing. Also, If the husband wanted to appeal the protection order would he stand a chance to convince the (same) judge that it was not harassment and that the protection order was therefore invalid?
Thank you for your thoughts
Per fist amendment this should be legal as free speech because he clarified at the end that Daisy was not the author.
However, a Washington state judge found that this was harassment and issued a protection order.
Why? When I read the first amendment and when I read the harassment statutes they seem to be contradicting each other. Is it possible that something can be protected by the 1st amendment yet constitute harassment? I find that extremely confusing. Also, If the husband wanted to appeal the protection order would he stand a chance to convince the (same) judge that it was not harassment and that the protection order was therefore invalid?
Thank you for your thoughts