1: US law only.I signed a promissory note that said "borrower" agrees to pay "amount" for "reason" and then we both signed it...
Now I'm being taken to court for refusal to pay.
State of michiganWhat US state?
The OP says that he's the "borrower". I do agree that the "reason" may make a difference (but I doubt it).It depends what the "reason" actually is rather than what was stated.
What did you get for agreeing to pay money in the future? Did he loan you money? Give you something? In order for this to be a contract, there has to be more than you just promissing to pay something in the future.
If you want a good answer to your question, you have to do a better job of providing information.Shouldn't there have to be witnesses? There was no date on there telling me I had to repay it by, and the amount went up drastically for little things like going out to eat, which weren't on the contract.
I don't disagree - but if you take the thread as a whole, it's obvious that he is, in fact, a borrower.What the note claims he is called is meaningless unless he actually received the money borrowed (or something of value). CONSIDERATION and MUTALITLY are as important as offer an acceptance.
He never said that in any of his three postings. The closest he has come is "For one thing but not this other crap" which is hardly precise.I don't disagree - but if you take the thread as a whole, it's obvious that he is, in fact, a borrower.
You failed to include the pertinent part of that post that makes it clear there was an "original loan":He never said that in any of his three postings. The closest he has come is "For one thing but not this other crap" which is hardly precise.
The original loan was for one thing, not all this other crap
I agree that he's likely to lose in court.However, since he can't be bothered to answer the questions put to him here that would elicit a possible defense, he's likely going to lose in court anyhow.